Gene/Protein Disease Symptom Drug Enzyme Compound
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Query: UMLS:C0042963 (vomiting)
 31,883 document(s) hit in 31,850,051 MEDLINE articles (0.00 seconds)

In distal (type 1) RTA, renal acid excretion is impaired by the inability to establish adequate pH gradients between plasma and distal tubular fluid at any level of acidosis. Main clinical signs in infancy are anorexia, vomiting and failure to thrive. Despite low serum bicarbonate levels the renal threshold of bicarbonate is normal, while urinary pH levels are high even with values below the threshold. Under conditions of bicarbonate-induced systemic alkalosis urinary the pCO2 exceeds blood pCO2 in normal subjects. by contrast, the urinary pCO2 tension is not significantly greater in distal RTA, indicating a failure of the cells of the distal nephron to secrete hydrogen ions even without a gradient. Red cell carbonic anhydrase is within the normal range, whilst the inhibition of carbonic anhydrase activity has no effect on distal tubular function. Until now no histological or enzymatic defect could be detected to explain the ineffective acidification. Bicarbonate loading is followed by a lowering of calcium excretion to within the normal range and a decrease in the uncharacteristic renal hyperaminoaciduria.
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PMID:[Investigations on the pathogenesis of distal renal tubular acidosis (author's transl)]. 3 16

Double-blind clinical trials involving the use of phenothiazines as analgesics or potentiators of analgesics (aspirin, meperidine, morphine sulfate) and adverse effects of phenothiazines are reviewed and evaluated. Promethazine, promazine and propiomazine were not found to possess analgesic or potentiating properties. One chlorpromazine study contained important design and reporting deficiencies which precluded a recommendation for use of chlorpromazine in the treatment of pain. Methotrimeprazine was determined by numerous authors to have analgesic properties; however, most of the studies also were deficient in design or data presented, or both. Adverse reactions to phenothiazines, including hypotension, sedation, drowsiness, extrapyramidal symptoms, tardive dyskinesia, cardiac toxicity and agranulocytosis, are often more common and severe than those attributed to narcotic analgesics. Because of the lack of data supportive of analgesic activity and the adverse reactions associated with phenothiazines, use of these agents in the management of pain should be discouraged. The prophylactic use of phenothiazine for narcotic analgesic-induced emesis also is, in most cases, a questionable practice.
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PMID:Phenothiazine analgesia--fact or fantasy? 3 54

The time of onset of ipecac-induced emesis is not significantly influenced by the temperature of concurrently administered fluid. The average time of emesis with syrup of ipecac administered with cold (10 degrees C) versus warm (40 degrees C) water was found to be 30:59 and 30:18 min, respectively. The difference in induction time is not statistically or clinically significant.
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PMID:The effect of temperature of concurrently administered fluid on the onset of ipecac-induced emesis. 3 18

A double-blind trial was conducted of two benzodiazepines, flunitrazepam and diazepam, given orally to 142 children (30 kg in weight or heavier) undergoing routine surgery. Flunitrazepam was associated with greater sedation before operation and less vomiting after operation than diazepam. Flunitrazepam caused a greater frequency of amnesia for the periods of induction and immediately after operation. Plasma concentrations were measured in 65 children and were found to be significantly greater in those children having amnesia for the induction period in both flunitrazepam and diazepam groups. In the diazepam group, plasma concentrations were significantly smaller in those who vomited than in those who did not vomit.
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PMID:Comparison of flunitrazepam and diazepam for oral premedication in older children. 3 61

Adverse reactions to the drugs employed in the National Cooperative Crohn's Disease Study were sought prospectively at each patient visit and by retrospective review of all patient charts. Prednisone caused evident side effects in over 50% of patients on high-dose suppressive therapy and in approximately one-third of patients on prophylactic dose. Thirty-two percent of patients on high-dose, and 26% on prophylactic-dose prednisone required dose reduction or withdrawal because of side effects. Comparable figures for sulfasalazine were 14% and 12%, and for azathioprine 32% and 20%. The incidence of nausea, vomiting, or anorexia among patients taking sulfasalazine was 46% and 34%, on high and low dose respectively; however, this incidence was no different than that observed among patients taking placebo. These symptoms occasioned withdrawal from the study of only 4% and 3% of patients on high and low doses of sulfasalazine, respectively. Azathioprine produced leukopenia at a dose of 2.5 mg/kg body weight in 15% of patients and the mean white cell count, lymphocyte count, granulocyte count, and hematocrit all fell significantly in patients on this dose. Pancreatitis occurred in 5% of patients taking azathioprine but in no other patients. Sulfasalazine proved to be the safest effective suppressive drug for Crohn's disease. Prednisone toxicity, though substantial, is acceptable in view of its demonstrated suppressive efficacy. Azathioprine was approximately as toxic as prednisone but no more effective than placebo in suppressing active disease. None of the drugs was effective prophylactically, and all showed appreciable long-term toxicity.
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PMID:National Cooperative Crohn's Disease Study: adverse reactions to study drugs. 3 77

During a limited period of time, the authors have systematically administered tiapride to all patients in the immediate post-operative phase presenting with: nausea, vomiting, pain. Intravenous injection of a single dose of 400 mg of tiapride produces: a strong anti-emetic action; an inconstant analgesic action, but very interesting for it is not accompanied with adverse effects.
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PMID:[Therapeutical trial in recovery room (author's transl)]. 3 11

In a prospective study 260 urographies were evaluated regarding clinical compatibility. In altogether 11% of the patients mild incompatibility reactions were observed (heat sensation, urticaria, nausea, vomiting). 29% of the patients with known prior contrast agent incompatibility suffered from anaphylactoid symptoms mostly of a subjective type (heat sensation, nausea). There was no statistically significant difference in the frequency of objective symptoms (urticaria, vomiting) between patients with prior contrast media incompatibility (3%) and patients who had tolerated previous contrast media applications without symptoms (2%).
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PMID:[Risk of incompatibility reactions in the repeated use of contrast media in urography]. 3 85

Respiratory distress, apnea, and chronic pulmonary disease since birth were identified in 14 infants who also had symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux. Birth weights varied from 760 to 4,540 gm. All infants had radiographic changes similar to those in bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Cessation of apnea and improvement of pulmonary disease occurred only after medical (8) or surgical (6) control of gastroesophageal reflux. Simultaneous tracings of esophageal pH, heart rate, impedance pneumography, and nasal air flow in five infants demonstrated that reflux preceded apnea. Apnea could be induced by instillation of dilute acid, but not water or formula, into the esophagus. Prolonged monitoring of esophageal pH more than two hours after feeding in 14 other infants less than 6 weeks of age (birth weight 780 to 3,350 gm) without a history of recent vomiting indicated that reflux was not greater than in normal older children.
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PMID:Gastroesophageal reflux causing respiratory distress and apnea in newborn infants. 3 84

2-Chloro-11-(2-dimethyl-aminoethoxy)dibenzo [b,f]thiepine (zotepine) is a new neuroleptic drug with a chemical structure different from known neuroleptics. The psychopharmacological effects of zotepine in mice, rats and dogs were studied and compared with those of commercially available neuroleptics. Haloperidol and perphenazine were the most active and thioridazine was the least active in hibiting apomorphine-induced gnawing and circling movement, methamphetamine-induced gnawing and circling movement, conditioned avoidance response, motor activity, dopamine-induced pancreatic secretion and apomorphine-induced vomiting. These drugs also had the same order of potency in inducing catalepsy and increasing dopamine turnover and prolactin release. Chlorpromazine, propericiazine and thiothixene were intermediate in potency. Zotepine equalled chlorpromazine in most activities, however, it was clearly less active than chlorpromazine in potentiation of barbiturate sleep and cardiovascular effect.
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PMID:Pharmacological study of [2-chloro-11-(2-dimethylaminoethoxy) dibenzo[b,f]thiepine] (zotepine), a new neuroleptic drug. 4 13

Pharmacological and biochemical properties of a novel compound, N-(1-benzyl-3-pyrrolidinyl)-5-chloro-2-methoxy-4-methylaminobenzamide (YM-08050) were compared with those of haloperidol (HPD) and chlorpromazine (CPZ) in animals. YM-08050 was more potent than either HPD or CPZ in inhibitory effects on a variety of behaviors such as apomorphine-induced stereotypes behavior and emesis, methamphetamine-induced stereotyped behavior, conditioned avoidance response and open field behavior. YM-08050 induced catalepsy only at much higher doses than to exhibit the inhibitory activities. The inhibitory effects of YM-08050 on [3H]dopamine binding and dopamine-sensitive adenylate cyclase in the synaptic membrane fractions of canine caudate nucleus were much greater than those of HPD and CPZ. The results suggest that YM-08050, a potent central dopaminergic blocker, is a potential antipsychotic drug with less extrapyramidal side effects than those of HPD and CPZ.
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PMID:Pharmacological and biochemical studies on a new potential neuroleptic, N-(1-benzyl-3-pyrrolidinyl)-5-chloro-2-methoxy-4-methylaminobenzamide (YM-08050). 4 18


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