Gene/Protein Disease Symptom Drug Enzyme Compound
Pivot Concepts:   Target Concepts:
Query: UMLS:C0027497 (nausea)
 23,468 document(s) hit in 31,850,051 MEDLINE articles (0.00 seconds)

Experimental evidence indicates that arginine vasopressin (AVP) contributes to the release of ACTH under certain conditions. The present study investigates the role of vasopressin as a secretagogue of ACTH during cigarette smoking or nicotine infusion with additional injection of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and using the specific AVP antagonist d(CH2)5Tyr(Me)-AVP. We first tested the effect of the AVP antagonist (10 micrograms/kg body weight i.v.) on ACTH and cortisol release following cigarette smoking in 15 healthy young male smokers. Smoking led to marked increments in plasma nicotine and to a small rise in plasma ACTH and cortisol. Mean plasma ACTH and cortisol levels were at no time significantly altered by the antagonist. This might be due to a slight agonistic effect of the AVP antagonist, to high interindividual variability of the ACTH and cortisol responses after smoking or to a negligible role of AVP in smoking-induced ACTH release. In a second study we performed the following tests in six healthy male non-smokers: (1) nicotine infusion (1.0 micrograms/kg body weight per min); (2) CRH i.v. (100 micrograms); (3) AVP antagonist i.v. (5 micrograms/kg); (4) nicotine infusion plus CRH i.v.; (5) nicotine infusion plus AVP antagonist i.v.; (6) nicotine infusion plus CRH and AVP antagonist i.v.; and (7) sham infusion. Nicotine infusion led to greater increments of AVP, ACTH and cortisol than smoking without causing nausea. Peak nicotine levels after nicotine infusion were lower than after smoking. The AVP antagonist in the reduced dosage given alone had no effect on hormone levels. However, it slightly attenuated the effect of nicotine on ACTH and cortisol (P less than 0.05, ANOVA).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
 ...
PMID:The role of vasopressin in the nicotine-induced stimulation of ACTH and cortisol in men. 132 53

Because of the advances in the treatment of cancer, patients live longer and require more comprehensive information in order to understand their illness, treatment procedure and role in the health care process. Each treatment involves combined therapeutic approaches, so information must be presented to the patient in such a way as to promote maximum understanding and acceptance. The purposes of this study were to explore and compare patients', nurses' and doctors' perception of the educational needs of cancer patients and to identify areas of agreement and disagreement in the perception of these needs by patients, nurses and doctors. Three groups took part in the study; 78 cancer patients, 39 nurses and 35 doctors. They all were selected from one general teaching hospital. Data were collected using a questionnaire, developed by the investigators. The questionnaire was made up of 2 sections; an importance rating scale and a knowledge/providing information rating scale. Each rating scale consisted of 20 specific informational items that were elicited through interviews with 60 cancer patients. The data were analyzed using percentages, means, Pearson correlation coefficients, t-test, and ANOVA. The results of this study were as follows; 1. Nurse subjects achieved a higher total score (85.6154) on the rating of importance than did the patients (81.5238) or the doctors (79.3125). The difference between the three group's total score was significant (F = 6.164, p less than .01) and the difference between the nurses' total score and doctors' was also statistically significant (t = 3.95, p less than .001). 2. On the whole, the rankings for the mean score of importance for the 20 items differed among the three groups of subjects. For the patient subjects, the highest mean ratings were for "the symptoms of recurring illness", "progress of illness", and "plan and duration of treatment" showing these to be the items that they considered important. The nurse subject felt that it was most important for oncology patients to know about "plan and duration of treatment", "how to minimize problems with loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting", and "amount of activity the patient can do around the work setting". Doctors felt it was most important for the patient to know about "prognosis of illness", "progress of illness", and "plan and duration of treatment". "Plan and duration of treatment" was the common item that all three groups perceived as important for patient learning.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)
 ...
PMID:[A study comparing the perception of patients, nurses and doctors about the educational needs of cancer patients]. 292 70

Oral amantadine 100 mg and bromocriptine 2.5 + 2.5 mg, alone and in combination with ethanol (1 g/kg), were investigated in two placebo-controlled, double-blind and cross-over trials. In the first trial the psychomotor effects of amantadine and bromocriptine were compared to those of placebo, and in the second trial ethanol was added to the treatment. Bromocriptine lowered serum prolactin levels, thus confirming its absorption. Amantadine and bromocriptine alone had no psychomotor effects but unpleasant sensations, nausea and dizziness were reported after bromocriptine. Ethanol impaired performance in terms of impaired coordinative and reactive skills, lowered tapping speed, prolonged critical flicker interval and reduced gaze nystagmus angle (P less than 0.05 to 0.001; two-way ANOVA). Subjectively, ethanol induced mental slowness, clumsiness and impairment of performance (P less than 0.05 to 0.001). Amantadine and bromocriptine failed to counteract any of these ethanol-induced changes. It is concluded that in man, an acute dopaminergic activation by amantadine or bromocriptine does not significantly modify the psychomotor effects of ethanol.
 ...
PMID:Failure of amantadine and bromocriptine to counteract alcoholic inebriation in man. 650 9

The objective of this study was two-fold: 1. to determine the pharmacokinetic parameters and the bioavailability of two 20 mg isosorbide-5-mononitrate (CAS 16051-77-7, IS-5-MN) preparations (treatments A and B) after single oral administration and 2. to evaluate the absolute bioavailability of IS-5-MN, which was possible by the administration of a third IS-5-MN preparation (treatment C) by the intravenous route (1 mg/ml, dose 20 mg). The three preparations were examined in 24 healthy volunteers according to a randomized 3-way cross-over design, blood samples were withdrawn up to 24 h following the administration of IS-5-MN and plasma concentrations of IS-5-MN were quantified by a gas chromatography method. The two oral preparations led to peak concentration values of about 360 ng/ml of IS-5-MN in the mean 0.90 h (treatment A) and 0.97 h (treatment B) after drug administration. The corresponding values for the infusion were 339.6 ng/ml and 2.59 h in the mean. For the areas under the curve (AUC(0-infinity)) mean values of 2733 (treatment A). 2724 (treatment B) and 2877 h x ng/ml (treatment C) were found. The absolute bioavailability of both oral treatments revealed values of 95.00% and 94.74% for treatments A and B, respectively. The statistical comparison (ANOVA, confidence intervals) of the pharmacokinetic parameters showed bioequivalence between both oral preparations and equivalence in the amount of drug absorption between both oral formulations and the i.v.-infusion. The observed undesired side effects (e.g. headache or nausea) are well known to occur after IS-5-MN administration.
 ...
PMID:Evaluation of the pharmacokinetics and absolute bioavailability of three isosorbide-5-mononitrate preparations in healthy volunteers. 771 Apr 35

The potency of S-(+)-ketamine is approximately double that of the racemic ketamine. This study was carried out to investigate the recovery of cerebral electrical function after a bolus of 1.3 mg/kg ketamine or 0.65 mg/kg S-(+)-ketamine and subsequent continuous application of 4 mg/kg h ketamine per h or 2 mg/kg S-(+)-ketamine, per h for 15 min. Furthermore, the centrally acting, cholinergic agonist physostigmine has been reported to antagonize ketamine and to shorten the recovery period. Therefore, after S-(+)-ketamine 0.012 mg/kg physostigmine was tested against saline placebo. METHODS. With their own informed consent and the approval of the ethics committee 12 healthy volunteers were enrolled in a double-blind cross-over study. All drugs were dissolved in identical volumes. On three dates with intervals of at least 1 week between, ketamine/NaCl, S-(+)-ketamine/physostigmine or S-(+)-ketamine/NaCl was administered (Table 1). The sequence was randomized. The EEG was recorded from 20 sites according to the 10/20 system and after Fast-Fourier transformation computed into amplitudes within the delta, theta, alpha, and beta bands and within the total spectrum. The median, the spectral edge frequency and the dominant frequency (dF) were also determined. Mean values of all electrodes before and at 10, 15, 30, 45 and 195 min after the bolus injection were compared using two-dimensional analysis of variance (ANOVA, significance level P < 0.05). RESULTS. The characteristic increase in theta-amplitude and decrease of alpha-amplitude were observed after ketamine and S-(+)-ketamine. Median and dF dropped from the alpha to the theta frequency range. Ketamine led to a greater increase in total, delta, theta and beta amplitude during anaesthesia. 3 hours after ketamine/S-(+)-ketamine anaesthesia a significant decrease in the median and dominant frequency and in total, delta, theta, alpha and beta amplitudes confirmed residual impairment of cerebral function after all study drugs. No differences were found between physostigmine and placebo. DISCUSSION. The EEG changes during ketamine/S-(+)-ketamine administration suggest a slightly deeper anaesthetic level after ketamine. The course of recovery was not different after ketamine and after S-(+)-ketamine. The spectral edge frequency did not differ between measurement points, and is therefore not suitable for assessment of the depth of anaesthesia reached with ketamine/S-(+)-ketamine. The dose of physostigmine tested was probably too low to produce antagonism of S-(+)-ketamine. An increased dosage of physostigmine has yet to be studied, but is likely to cause a higher rate of side effects, such as nausea, vomiting and bradycardia, and possibly even tonic-clonic seizures.
 ...
PMID:[Ketamine racemate versus S-(+)-ketamine with or without antagonism with physostigmine. A quantitative EEG study on volunteers]. 784 Apr 18

In a prospective study 60 patients receiving morphine for treatment of mostly neuropathic and musculoskeletal pain of non-malignant origin were investigated. The aim of the study was to determine the characteristics of responders to morphine therapy and the frequency and severity of side effects. METHODS. Eligible patients suffered from chronic pain that had not been relieved despite all current therapy. All of them received controlled-release morphine tablets. Dose was increased in case of insufficient pain relief. Before morphine treatment and at the follow-ups pain intensity was rated on a numeric analogous scale, analgesia and side effects on a four-stage verbal rating scale. Intake of the prescribed and other drugs was randomly controlled by urine analysis. The patients were divided in three groups retrospectively: group I, non-responders who ceased the morphine therapy within 1 month due to weak analgesia or severe side effects; group II, patients in whom the therapy was stopped within the following months despite persisting pain; group III, patients who continued therapy. STATISTICS. ANOVA, chi-squared test, non-parametric tests (Kruskal-Wallis, Wilcoxon). Results were accepted as significant at p < 0.05. RESULTS. Twenty-three patients were non-responders. Fourteen other patients stopped the therapy after initial response because the side effects exceeded the benefit of analgesia (group II). Only 10 of the remaining 23 responders had good analgesia and minor side effects during the observation time. Constipation, despite prophylactic laxatives, and nausea were the most frequently reported events causing cessation of therapy. Analgesia and side effects in groups II and III were constant during the observation time of 241 (36-1486) days. In groups II and III, 43% of the patients needed an increase of the morphine dosage during therapy. The initially sufficient morphine dosage was significantly higher in group II than in group III; only one patient needed more than 90 mg/day in group III. Urine screening tests in 45 patients disclosed that 18 patients concealed the intake of other opioids or psychotropic drugs, mostly benzodiazepines. CONCLUSIONS. The study showed many problems with the patients' compliance and acceptance of oral morphine due to side effects and lack of analgesia. The discrepancy from other, positive reports might be explained by the extremely selected patients of this study and by the fact that not only responders were included for evaluation. Patients' compliance seems to have been overestimated in previous studies because no urinary controls were taken.
 ...
PMID:[Morphine tablets for chronic non-tumor-induced pain. Which factors modify the success or failure of a long-term therapy?]. 836 76

The efficacy and safety of trandolapril alone and in combination with a calcium channel blocker were evaluated in 13,147 hypertensive patients over 60 years old. Two patient groups were constituted. After a 2-week wash-out period, the patients in group I received monotherapy with trandolapril 2 mg/day for 4 weeks. Trandolapril was continued for another 4 weeks in responding patient, otherwise the dosage of trandolapril was doubled or another antihypertensive was added. Group 2, composed of patients previously treated with a calcium channel blocker with insufficient efficacy, was treated according to the same treatment regimen, but the calcium channel blocker was maintained throughout the study. 13,147 patients (group 1: 11,329 patients, group 2: 1,818 patients) with a mean age of 68 +/- 7 years were followed. After 4 weeks of treatment, the blood pressure measured by mercury sphygmomanometer decreased from 176 + 11/99 +/- 8 mmHg to 164 +/- 12/87 +/- 7 mmHg (p < 0.0001). This blood pressure fall was similar in group 1 (-22 +/- 12/-12 +/- 8 mmHg) and in group 2 (-21 +/- 11/-12 +/- 8 mmHg). In the pure systolic HT subgroup treated by trandolapril monotherapy, the antihypertensive effect predominantly affected the SBP (-23 +/- 12/- 4 +/- 6 mmHg). The antihypertensive effect was correlated with the initial blood pressure. In group 1, in the case of insufficient response to trandolapril monotherapy, the addition of a calcium channel blocker was the strategy which achieved the most marked antihypertensive effect (ANOVA, p < 0.0001). This bitherapy was more effective than the trandolapril+diuretic combination (-18 +/- 11/- 11 +/- 8 mmHg and -15 +/- 10/- 9 +/- 7 mmHg, respectively (p < 0.001). A total of 1,270 adverse events were reported by 996 patients (7.6%), leading to discontinuation of treatment in 372 patients (2.8%). The most frequent adverse effects were cough (2.8%), headache (0.8%), vertigo (0.8%) and nausea (0.5%). Only one minor equivalent of angioneurotic oedema was reported. In conclusion, trandolapril is effective and well tolerated in elderly hypertensive patients. In the case of pure systolic HTA, its action is essentially exerted on SBP. The combination of trandolapril+calcium channel blocker appears to be the most effective strategy in the case of incomplete blood pressure control by trandolapril alone.
 ...
PMID:[Evaluation of trandolapril alone or in combination with a calcium channel blocker in hypertensive patients over 60 years of age]. 874 62

The purpose of this study was to examine the relationship between mood and hormonal responses to cholinergic challenge with physostigmine in order to assess cholinergic system responsiveness in borderline personality disorder (BPD) patients, other non-BPD personality disorder patients, and normal controls. Thirty-four personality disorder patients, 10 of whom met criteria for BPD and 24 of whom met criteria for other, non-borderline, personality disorders, and 11 normal controls participated in a double blind, placebo controlled physostigmine challenge paradigm. The Profile of Mood States depression subscale (POMS-D) self report measure was obtained at baseline and following the physostigmine or placebo infusions. A repeated measures ANOVA of POMS-D scores in placebo and drug conditions indicated a significantly greater depressive response in the total cohort of personality disorder patients than in the normal comparison group (p < 0.05). However, the depressive response to physostigmine was significantly greater in BPD patients, but not other personality disorder patients, compared to normal controls (p < 0.05). There was a correlation between the peak placebo-corrected depressive response to physostigmine and a group of BPD traits related to affective instability but not a group of BPD traits related to impulsivity. There was no correlation in any group between mood response to physostigmine and changes in plasma cortisol, prolactin, or growth hormone, or to nausea or other side effects following physostigmine infusion. These data suggest that there is an association between BPD and acute depressive responses to physostigmine challenge, and that the cholinergic system may be involved in the regulation of affect in Axis II disorders.
 ...
PMID:Depressive response to physostigmine challenge in borderline personality disorder patients. 932 51

Methyl tertiary-butyl ether (MTBE) is widely used in gasoline as an oxygenate and octane enhancer. Acute effects, such as headache, nausea, and nasal and ocular irritation, have been associated with the exposure to gasoline containing MTBE. The aim of this study was to assess acute health effects up to the Swedish occupational exposure limit value, both with objective methods and a questionnaire. Ten healthy male volunteers were exposed to MTBE vapor for 2 h at three levels (5, 25, and 50 ppm), during light physical work (50 W). All subjects rated the degree of irritative symptoms, discomfort, and CNS effects before, during, and after all three exposure occasions using a questionnaire. Answers were given on a 100-mm visual analog scale, graded from "not at all" to "almost unbearable." Ocular (redness, tear film break-up time, self-reported tear film break-up time, conjunctival epithelial damage, and blinking frequency) and nasal (mouth and nasal peak expiratory flow, acoustic rhinometry, biochemical inflammatory markers, and cells in nasal lavage) measurements were performed mainly at the highest exposure level. The ratings of solvent smell increased dramatically (ratings up to 50% of the scale) as the volunteers entered the chamber and declined slowly with time (p < 0.05, repeated-measures ANOVA). All other questions were rated from "not at all" to "hardly at all" (0-10% of the scale) with no significant relation to exposure. The eye measurements showed no effects of MTBE exposure. Blockage index, a measure of nasal airway resistance calculated from the peak expiratory flows, increased significantly after exposure; however, the effect was not related to exposure level. In addition, a nonsignificant tendency of decreased nasal volume was seen in the acoustic rhinometry measurements, but with no clear dose-effect relationship. In conclusion, our study suggests no or minimal acute effects of MTBE vapor upon short-term exposure at relatively high levels.
 ...
PMID:Experimental exposure to methyl tertiary-butyl ether. II. Acute effects in humans. 947 36

The purpose of this study was to document the emetogenic potential of intrathecal chemotherapy (IC) in children and to evaluate the efficacy of ondansetron in reducing nausea and vomiting with this chemotherapy treatment. Patients less than 18 years of age with acute lymphoblastic leukemia were eligible to participate in a survey project measuring the emetogenic potential of various chemotherapy treatments. Patients surveyed for 1 or more IC treatments were included in this report. The IC consisted of methotrexate, hydrocortisone and cytarabine, dosed according to patient age. A nausea/vomiting survey instrument was completed by each patient and/or parent following IC treatment. The instrument rated nausea, vomiting and daily activity interference (DAI) on a 4-point scale of 0 = none, 1 = mild, 2 = moderate and 3 = severe, and collected data on the number of vomiting and/or retching episodes in addition to the child's appetite following the chemotherapy treatment. When ondansetron was employed, it was administered in an i.v. infusion at a dose of 0.15 mg/kg before and after chemotherapy or as an oral dose of 4 mg or 8 mg before chemotherapy. Courses of IC without antiemetics were analyzed to determine the emetogenic potential of IC. For patients receiving IC both with and without ondansetron, courses were compared with each patient used as their own control to determine the influence of ondansetron upon survey responses. Statistical analysis consisted of nonparametric Friedman 2-way ANOVA for ordinal variables and a paired t-test for continuous variables. The binomial test was employed to analyze for differences between ondansetron and no antiemetic in the number of patients with complete control of both nausea and vomiting or vomiting alone. A total of 63 children with a mean age of 7.6 +/- 4.2 years were each studied on one or more occasions. Thirty-seven children were surveyed for 87 IC treatments without antiemetics (group I), and 17 children from this group were surveyed for 48 IC courses with i.v. ondansetron (group IA). An additional 18 children were subsequently surveyed for 39 IC courses with i.v. ondansetron (group II). Fifteen patients (7 of whom were members of group I) were surveyed following 33 IC courses with oral ondansetron (group III). The survey scores for group I patients were: nausea severity 1.3 +/- 1.1, vomiting severity 1.2 +/- 1.1, DAI 1.2 +/- 1.0 and mean number of emetic episodes 4.7 +/- 8.4. The mean appetite score was 1.5 +/- 1.1. For patients in group IA, nausea severity (0.8 +/- 0.9), vomiting severity (0.5 +/- 0.8), DAI (0.7 +/- 0.8), and the number of emetic episodes (1.4 +/- 2.8) were all significantly lower than with prior IC treatments without ondansetron. For complete protection, children receiving i.v. ondansetron had greater complete protection rates from both nausea and vomiting or vomiting alone than did patients receiving no antiemetic. Survey responses were also lower for patients receiving oral ondansetron, but insufficient control data did not allow for statistical analysis. IC results in mild to moderate nausea and vomiting in children. The emetogenic potential of IC is significantly reduced by i.v. ondansetron.
 ...
PMID:Assessment of the emetogenic potential of intrathecal chemotherapy and response to prophylactic treatment with ondansetron. 954 Jan 72


1 2 3 Next >>