Gene/Protein Disease Symptom Drug Enzyme Compound
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Query: UMLS:C0027497 (nausea)
 23,468 document(s) hit in 31,850,051 MEDLINE articles (0.00 seconds)

Intravenous contrast media, specifically the gadolinium chelates, are well accepted for use in the clinical practice of magnetic resonance imaging. The gadolinium chelates are considered to be very safe and lack (in intravenous use) the nephrotoxicity found with iodinated contrast media. Minor adverse reactions, including nausea and hives, occur in a low percentage of cases. The four agents currently available in the United States cannot be differentiated on the basis of these adverse reactions. Severe anaphylactoid reactions are also known to occur with all agents, although these are uncommon. This review discusses the safety issues involved with intravenous administration of the gadolinium chelates and off-label use. The latter is common in clinical practice and permits broader application of these agents.
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PMID:Safety of magnetic resonance contrast media. 1168 17

CAMPATH-1H (CP-1H) is a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the CD52 antigen with promising therapeutic effects in patients with small cell lymphocytic non-Hodgkin's lymphomas (NHL) of B- and T-cell type. We report about the response and toxicity of CP-1H in 18 patients with B-cell NHL who were treated in four clinical centers in Germany. Sixteen patients suffered from a low-grade and two from a high-grade NHL. All patients had received chemotherapy before and had either relapsed or were refractory to conventional therapy. Two patients received CP-1H in a dose-range finding trial once weekly and 16 patients as a fixed dose of 30 mg three times weekly. Of 18 patients, 8 (44%) achieved a clinical response, 2 (11%) had stable disease, and 5 (28%) had progressive disease. Four patients could not be evaluated for response because of death (two patients) and serious adverse events (two patients). All patients with response to CP-1H had a low-grade NHL. Nonhematological toxicity was severe in two patients who suffered from WHO grade III/IV bronchospasm. Common acute adverse events (WHO grade I-III) included fever, chills, rigor, urticaria, nausea, and vomiting. Eleven patients suffered from bacterial or viral infections; some had recurrent infections. A total of 12 different infections were reported. The most frequent infections were caused by herpesvirus (seven patients). Hematological toxicity included thrombocytopenia in four and lymphocytopenia in seven patients. Although the antibody is humanized, the nonhematological toxicity was substantial and probably due to a cytokine release syndrome. Prophylactic treatment of the side effects is strongly recommended for patients treated either with CP-1H alone or in combination with chemotherapy.
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PMID:Monoclonal antibody therapy with CAMPATH-1H in patients with relapsed high- and low-grade non-Hodgkin's lymphomas: a multicenter phase I/II study. 1180 32

Fertility control by cyclic norethindrone (Norlutin), 17 alpha-ethinyl 19-nortestosterone, plus .06 mg 3-methoxy ethinyl estradiol (Ortho-Novum) was studied in 364 women over a period of 32 months for a total of 6062 cycles. No patient who followed the instructions became pregnant. 37 patients stopped the medication for various reasons. The interval between stopping medication and becoming pregnant averaged 1.6 months. 13 of these pregnancies occurred after 11-15 cycles of treatment. Children born to these mothers were normal with no virilization observed. Findings from all Papanicolaou smears and cervical biopsies were normal. The desirable effects of diminishing the menstrual flow, reducing dysmenorrhea and regulating the menstrual cycle, plus the all-important one of contraception, far outweighed minimal and infrequent undesirable side effects (in order of frequence: chloasma, hot flashes, headache, nausea, acne, abdominal pain, dizziness and urticaria). In only 4.8% of the total 6062 cycles was some complaint made.
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PMID:Long-term administration of norethindrone in fertility control. 1227 4

The resistance of Plasmodium falciparum to the chloroquine-proguanil association (C/P) as antimalarial chemoprophylaxis is becoming increasingly common in Africa. Daily oral doxycycline hyclate 100 mg is effective as malaria prophylaxis. But the hyclate salt's adverse effects combined with the capsule's galenic form are incompatible with good chemoprophylaxis compliance. We conducted a randomized group study of 522 French soldiers deployed in Gabon and Chad for 4 months to determine the tolerability of short-term malaria chemoprophylaxis with a 100-mg daily tablet of a monohydrate doxycycline salt compared with a daily C/P capsule. At days 7 and 120, compliance was better in the doxycycline group [respectively 98.5%vs. 73.9% (P < 0.001) and 90.5%vs. 74% (P < 0.001)]. No major event (evacuation, hospitalization) was related to the medications. Epigastralgia, diarrhoea, urticaria, mouth ulcers, sun sensitization and desquamation were significantly more frequent in the C/P group (P < 0.05). There was no statistical difference for malaria incidence, vertigo, nausea and hair loss. These results suggest that doxycycline monohydrate may be safely used in short-term malaria chemoprophylaxis. With the same efficacy as a hyclate doxycycline, doxycycline monohydrate could be a good chemoprophylaxis for short-term travellers at particular risk of C/P resistant P. falciparum malaria.
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PMID:Tolerability of doxycycline monohydrate salt vs. chloroquine-proguanil in malaria chemoprophylaxis. 1239 May 96

This was a great save. The crew could easily have missed the presentation of anaphylaxis and let the window for treatment with epinephrine slip away. This patient was in anaphylactic shock. There were no signs that supported a traumatic injury, and that, combined with diaphoresis, urticaria and tachycardic central pulse, contributed to the suspicion of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is classified as distributive shock. This type of shock is caused by profound systemic vasodilation, and the heart is unable to increase output enough to maintain blood pressure. Other causes of distributive shock include sepsis and spinal cord injury. It is rare to have both hypotension and wheezing in such cases. In an anaphylactic reaction, an allergen, such as a food protein, medication, insect venom or latex, is introduced into the body. The mast cells of the immune system have a protein on their surface called IgE antibodies (Immunoglobulin E). The mast cells are filled with histamines [table: see text] and leukotrienes, which are chemical mediators. These are released when the allergen reacts with the IgE antibodies. When these mediators are released, they cause smooth-muscle constriction in the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts, resulting in wheezing, stridor, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. They also cause vascular dilation, leading to edema and urticaria. Most patients will present with either profound vascular effect (shock) or wheezing; this is a rather rare presentation of a patient having both. The medication best suited to counteract the effects of these medicators is epinephrine. Epinephrine is an alpha- and beta-agonist, acting to constrict the vasculature and dilate the smooth muscles in the bronchial tree. Antihistamines can alleviate symptoms of anaphylaxis, but should only be used in addition to epinephrine, not as a substitute. In life-threatening reactions, epinephrine must be given quickly and in a form that the body can distribute. Use of the subcutaneous route with a solution mixed at 1:1,000 dilution is appropriate in most patients, but if the patient is in profound shock and not perfusing the skin (pale, cold, clammy skin), then a more diluted concentration must be given i.v. at a slow rate (1 cc every minute of the 1:1,000 dilution) until the patient recovers. If i.v. access is delayed or not available, give the 1:1,000 dilution intramuscularly, in the tongue or down the endotracheal tube. Refer to your local protocols for dosage, but the usual dose of epinephrine is 0.3-0.5 mg, or 0.01 mg/kg in a child. There are more than 40 million people in the U.S. with allergic histories that place them at risk for developing anaphylaxis. Each year over 5,000 deaths are attributed to anaphylaxis. The risk of death from anaphylaxis increases with a more rapid onset of signs and symptoms. Up to 25% of patients will experience a biphasic reaction. This means there is a recurrence of symptoms several hours after the initial reaction, and it is prudent to observe patients for a period of time following their initial treatment.
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PMID:Bugged. 1277 12

Fever-shivers reaction (FSR) is the most frequent transfusion immediate incident related to platelet transfusions. The aim of our prospective study was to assess the frequency of the different immediate incidents, especially the frequency and the causes of the FSR, observed during the transfusion of standard platelet concentrates (SPC). For each FSR, analysis of causes included: a bacterial culture of the implicated SPC, a blood culture and HLA antibody screening (lymphocytotoxicity assay) among the patients. In the study period, 34 patients were followed during 74 transfusions. Ten immediate incidents were noted; FSR: N = 8, erythema-urticaria: N = 1 and nausea-vomit: N = 1. The FSR was observed in 6 patients who received 56 SPC. Analysis of causes of this reaction revealed that: HLA antibodies were present in one patient; bacterial contamination was not found neither among the patients nor in the implicated SPC, and the risk of the FSR occurrence rose with increased storage time of the SPC transfused. Indeed, a significant difference was noted between the mean age of the SPC implicated in the FSR and the mean age of those not implicated (P = 0,0028). In conclusion, the FSR is a frequent incident observed during SPC transfusions. In the majority of cases, the cause of this reaction was not identified. Further studies will be necessary to better understand the physiological mechanisms of the FSR.
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PMID:[Fever-shivers reaction and standard platelet concentrates transfusion: a prospective study]. 1456 15

Anaphylaxis following laminaria insertion rarely occurs but may be a life-threatening condition. Laminaria tents, prepared from natural sea kelp, are commonly used prior to elective termination of pregnancy to achieve cervical dilatation. We report herein two cases of anaphylaxis caused by IgE-mediated hypersensitivity to laminaria. Two women, each of whom had undergone at least one previous abortion where a laminaria had been utilized, developed anaphylactic reaction following laminaria insertion. The reaction included urticaria, nausea, breathing difficulty, and hypotension. The patients subsequently underwent skin testing and measurement of serum specific IgE level to laminaria extract, and were shown to elicit positive responses to laminaria. The implication and impact of laminaria allergy on gynecologic procedures are significant and this allergy should be included in the list of differential diagnoses for hypersensitive reaction in gynecologic procedures.
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PMID:Two cases of anaphylaxis after laminaria insertion. 1467 49

Systemic mastocytosis (SM), as opposed to cutaneous-only mastocytosis, implies the presence of neoplastic mast cell infiltration in extracutaneous tissue. Mast cell disease in adults is often systemic and often involves the bone marrow. Typical clinical and laboratory features of SM include urticaria pigmentosa, mast cell mediator symptoms (eg, headache, flushing, lightheadedness, urticaria and pruritus, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vasodilatory shock), bone pain (eg, osteoporosis, lytic bone lesions, and fractures), hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, eosinophilia, elevated serum tryptase and histamine, and bone marrow fibrosis and angiogenesis. SM may be indolent (no evidence of organ dysfunction), aggressive (presence of organ dysfunction), associated with another often chronic myeloid hematologic disease (SM-AHD), or present as mast cell leukemia or sarcoma. Mast cell-mediator symptoms are treated with histamine antagonists and cromolyn sodium. Indolent SM does not require cytoreductive therapy. Aggressive SM and SM-AHD are managed based on their molecular profile. Recent information suggests that FIP1-like-1-platelet-derived growth factor receptor-alpha(+) SM responds well to imatinib mesylate, whereas interferon-alpha should be considered as a first-line treatment in all of the other cases, including patients with Asp816Val(+) SM. Cladribine has been shown to be effective in patients who develop resistance to interferon treatment.
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PMID:Systemic mastocytosis: current concepts and treatment advances. 1508 68

Infliximab is a tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha antagonist that has revolutionised the treatment of Crohn's disease and rheumatoid arthritis. However, infliximab therapy can be complicated by a variety of adverse reactions. Acute infusion reactions occur during or shortly after infusion and typically consist of fever, chills, nausea, dyspnoea and headaches. Delayed reactions, characterised by myalgias, arthralgias, fever, rash, pruritus, facial, hand or lip oedema, dysphagia, urticaria, sore throat and headache may occur 3-12 days after infusion. Although the mechanisms of these reactions are not yet clearly defined, emerging evidence indicates that these reactions may be associated with the immune response against infliximab and the development of antibodies to infliximab.A number of studies have identified protective factors that may minimise adverse reactions, presumably related to the immune response against infliximab. Factors that may be protective by helping to establish immune tolerance for the foreign infliximab protein include concomitant administration of immunomodulators or corticosteroids, starting infliximab therapy with a 0, 2, 6-week induction regimen, maintenance dose administration with infusions every 8 weeks or less, and avoiding long periods between infusions. Infliximab therapy also may have other immunological consequences. There is evidence that infliximab may impede the appropriate immune response to a number of pathogens, prohibiting its use in patients with active infections. In addition, patients should be screened and appropriately treated for tuberculosis before initiating infliximab therapy. The development of autoantibodies, such as antinuclear antibody or anti-ds-DNA, has also been described with infliximab therapy, although the development of clinical lupus-like syndrome is rare. While there is a theoretical risk of increased rate of malignancies due to antagonism of TNFalpha, to date there is no clear evidence of such an effect. In addition, cardiac and neurological adverse events associated with infliximab therapy have been described. The mechanism for these adverse events is unclear. In summary, infliximab therapy can be an effective treatment for Crohn's disease; however, a number of immunological consequences and adverse events may complicate the infusion of this agent. Appropriate prophylaxis and therapy of these adverse reactions will allow infliximab to be used safely in the vast majority of patients.
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PMID:Managing immunogenic responses to infliximab: treatment implications for patients with Crohn's disease. 1530 61

Malarial infection during pregnancy increases the risks of severe sequelae for the pregnant woman and the risk of delivering a low birthweight baby. The aim of this intervention study was to reduce significantly the prevalence of malaria parasitaemia in adolescent parturients in Matola and Boane in Mozambique. The study was focused upon the most malaria-vulnerable group, adolescent nulliparous and primiparous women. After completing the usual antenatal clinic and giving informed consent, 600 pregnant women were randomly chosen in a double blind manner to one of two regimens comparing the prevailing routine (placebo) for malaria prevention with a two dose regimen of sulphadoxine-pyrimethamine (SP). The first dose was given at enrollment with a second dose at the beginning of the third trimester. At delivery maternal and placental malaria parasitaemia as well as birthweight and gestational duration were analysed. At booking the prevalence of malaria parasitaemia was 35.3% in the placebo group and 30.6% in the SP group. At the second dose, the prevalence of malaria parasitaemia in the placebo group and SP group was 19.7% and 8.7%, respectively. This implies a relative risk (RR) of 2.24 with 95% CI (1.34, 3.75). The corresponding figures at delivery were 13.6% and 6.3% with an RR of 2.22 (1.07, 4.60) and in placenta 13.3% and 2.4% with an RR of 4.87 (1.58, 15.0). Newborns with malaria within 7 days were significantly more frequent in the placebo group, 6.4% and 0.7% respectively, with an RR of 6.55 (1.20, 35.7). Almost all (approximately 98%) of the women studied had Plasmodium falciparum, the remainder had P. malariae and P. ovale. The mean birthweight in the SP group was 3077 g and in the placebo group 2926 g. The estimated mean difference between the two groups was 151 g with 95% CI (51, 252). The mean placental weight in the placebo group was 596 and 645 g in the SP group, implying a difference of 49 g with a 95% CI (11, 88). The mean gestational duration was 6.1 days longer in the SP group, 95% CI (1.5, 10.6). In the placebo group there were two cases of urticaria and one case of nausea; in the SP group there was one case of vomiting. No newborn showed any sign of serious SP side-effect. Two doses of SP were enough to significantly reduce the prevalence of peripheral and placental malaria parasitaemia among young nulliparous and primiparous pregnant women in Matola and Boane.
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PMID:Impact of a double dose of sulphadoxine-pyrimethamine to reduce prevalence of pregnancy malaria in southern Mozambique. 1548 98


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