Gene/Protein Disease Symptom Drug Enzyme Compound
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Query: UMLS:C0018681 (headache)
 56,091 document(s) hit in 31,850,051 MEDLINE articles (0.00 seconds)

Since their introduction, 5-HT3 receptor antagonists have become the agents of choice in the prevention of acute chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting and are generally superior to high-dose metoclopramide regimens. The availability of four different agents (ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron, and tropisetron) within this class has prompted investigations into potential differences between the drugs, which appear to be few. More importantly, the results of recently conducted randomized comparative trials in patients receiving moderately or highly emetogenic chemotherapy have demonstrated similar efficacy. Although study designs and patient populations differed, seven large comparative trials in patients receiving highly emetogenic chemotherapy reported no significant differences in complete or complete plus major response rates among the agents. Similar results were generally reported in trials evaluating patients receiving moderately emetogenic chemotherapy. The safety and tolerability of these agents also appear to be similar. The most common adverse events include headache, gastrointestinal effects, lightheadedness, and sedation. All agents are available in both intravenous and oral dosage forms and may be administered as a single dose.
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PMID:Comparative review of 5-HT3 receptor antagonists in the treatment of acute chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. 1070 79

The postural tachycardia syndrome (POTS) is characterized clinically by orthostatic lightheadedness and tachycardia. When these patients perform a Valsalva maneuver, there is an excessive blood pressure increment after cessation of the maneuver (phase IV) that is sometimes associated with headaches. It is not known whether excessive phase IV is due to excessive peripheral vascular tone (an alpha-adrenergic mechanism) or is a manifestation of increased beta-adrenergic tone (hyperadrenergic state). The authors undertook a pharmacologic study evaluating the effect of intravenous phentolamine (alpha-adrenergic antagonist) and propranolol (beta-adrenergic antagonist) on the different phases of the Valsalva maneuver in a group of patients with POTS and age-matched normal control subjects. Patients with POTS had mean phases, when compared with controls, that were characterized by more negative II_E (p = 0.07), smaller II_L (p = 0.04), and significantly larger phase IV (p = 0.001). The effect of phentolamine was qualitatively and quantitatively different in POTS when compared with controls. Ten mg phentolamine in controls resulted in a significant accentuation of phase II_E (p = 0.001), attenuation of phase II_L (p = 0.002), and increase of phase IV (57.6 vs 30.7 mm Hg; p = 0.025). These changes resembled those of patients with POTS at baseline. In patients with POTS, the phase II abnormalities, already present, were further accentuated (p <0.001), and phase IV became smaller (50.6 vs 73.8 mm Hg; p = 0.09). Propranolol had no significant effect on phases II_E and II_L, but significantly reduced phase IV in both controls (p <0.05) and in patients with POTS (p <0.001) and improved the headache symptoms, when present, during and after phase IV. The authors conclude that phase IV is mainly under beta-adrenergic regulation and that the exaggerated phase IV in POTS is a result of a hyperadrenergic state.
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PMID:Mechanisms of blood pressure alterations in response to the Valsalva maneuver in postural tachycardia syndrome. 1075 Jun 36

A 21-day, open-label, multisite, dose escalation study comprising three demographic groups (children, adolescents, and adults) was performed to determine the pharmacokinetics and tolerability of orally administered buspirone. Thirteen children and 12 adolescents with anxiety disorder and 14 normal healthy adults were escalated from 5 to 30 mg buspirone bid over the 3-week study. Pharmacokinetic analysis revealed that buspirone was rapidly absorbed in all study groups, reaching peak levels at about 1 hour after administration. Peak plasma buspirone concentrations (Cmax) were highest in children and lowest in adults at all three dose levels (7.5, 15, 30 mg bid). However, 1-pyrimidinylpiperazine (1-PP), the primary metabolite of buspirone, exhibited a different plasma concentration-time profile; Cmax was significantly higher in children than in either adolescents or adults at all concentrations. In addition, TAUC0-T for 1-PP was significantly higher in the children cohort relative to adolescents and adults. Buspirone was generally safe and well tolerated at doses up to 30 mg bid in adolescents and adults and most of the children. The most frequently reported adverse events in children and adolescents were lightheadedness (68%), headache (48%), and dyspepsia (20%); 2 children withdrewfrom the study at the higher doses (15 mg and 30 mg bid) due to adverse effects. In adults, the most common adverse effect was somnolence (21.4%); lightheadedness, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea were also reported, although these were mild in intensity.
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PMID:Pharmacokinetics and tolerability of buspirone during oral administration to children and adolescents with anxiety disorder and normal healthy adults. 1176 63

The general public, the mass media, and many government officials believe that the use of weapons of mass destruction (WMD) will inevitably lead to mass panic and/or mass hysteria. However, studies of disasters and wars show that disorganized flight in the presence of a real or perceived danger (i.e., mass panic) is rare. On the other hand, in a real or perceived WMD scenario, outbreaks of multiple unexplained symptoms (i.e., mass psychogenic illness, mass sociogenic illness, mass hysteria, or epidemic hysteria) may be prevalent. Many of the symptoms (fatigue, nausea, vomiting, headache, dizziness/lightheadedness, and anorexia) are common in combat and after toxic chemical exposure, chemical weapon exposure, prodromal infectious illness, and acute radiation sickness.
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PMID:Collective behaviors: mass panic and outbreaks of multiple unexplained symptoms. 1177 31

New daily persistent headache (NDPH) is a subtype of chronic daily headache. The literature on NDPH is scant and its true aetiology is unknown. A retrospective chart review was carried out from a computerized database at the Jefferson Headache Centre from August 1997 to May 2000 to identify patients with NDPH using the Silberstein et al. criteria. Forty women and 16 men were identified. Age of onset ranged from 12 to 78 years. The peak age of onset was the second and third decade in women and the fifth decade in men. Eighty-two per cent of patients were able to pinpoint the exact day their headache started. Onset occurred in relation to an infection or flu-like illness in 30%. A prior headache history was found in 38% of patients. A family history of headache was documented in 29%. The duration of daily headache ranged from 1.5 h to 24 h; 79% were continuous. Nausea occurred in 68% of patients, photophobia in 66%, phonophobia in 61%, and lightheadedness in 55%. Laboratory testing and neuroimaging in all patients was normal except for Epstein-Barr virus antibody titres, which were positive in 71% of seven patients tested, representing past infection. NDPH appears to be a female-predominant disorder, marked by a continuous daily headache with associated migrainous symptoms. Over 80% of patients could state the exact date their headache began. One-third of patients developed NDPH with a flu-like illness.
Cephalalgia 2002 Feb
PMID:The clinical characteristics of new daily persistent headache. 1199 16

Health concerns related to the quality of the environment in offices, schools, homes, and residences have increased dramatically over the past 2 decades. One health problem frequently confronting medical practitioners and often attributed to environmental quality problems is idiopathic environmental intolerances (IEI). Formerly known as multiple chemical sensitivities, IEI is an acquired disorder characterized by adverse reactions attributed to exposure to a variety of substances under ordinary conditions. Alleged precipitants include solvents, pesticides, detergents, dusts, and fragrances. Symptoms include fatigue, malaise, headache, concentration and memory difficulties, lightheadedness, cough, hoarseness, and rhinitis without objective physical signs or consistent laboratory abnormalities. The role of the environment in precipitating these complaints continues to be controversial, and no intervention or treatment has thus far been proven to be effective. While not progressive or life threatening, IEI is often functionally disabling and very distressing to affected individuals. The investigation of IEI should involve, at a minimum, a clinical evaluation of the affected person and in most cases an environmental evaluation as well. IEI should be managed without overutilization of diagnostic tests or prescription of unnecessary environmental, occupational, or dietary restrictions.
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PMID:Idiopathic environmental intolerances. 1241 13

We describe an 18-year-old female who complained of general weakness, nausea, vomiting, headache, and lightheadedness. On physical examination, she was euvolemic without visual or neurological deficits. The striking biochemical abnormality was hyponatremia (125 mmol/l). This hyponatremia met the laboratory diagnostic criteria for the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Two litres of normal saline were given per day for 4 days and this did not correct her hyponatremia. A spontaneous diuresis (6.6 l) developed in 1 day, causing a rise in her PNa of 26 mmol and a final PNa of 152 mmol/l. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed a dumbell-shaped intrasellar and suprasellar cyst. During transsphenoidal surgery, a Rathke's cleft cyst (RCC) lined with columnar epithelium containing mucoid material was resected. We speculate that the growing RCC may have produced critical compression over the stalk, thus contributing to the transition from SIADH with hyponatremia to transient central diabetes insipidus with hypernatremia.
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PMID:Rathke's cleft cyst presenting with hyponatremia and transient central diabetes insipidus. 1271 31

The pharmacology, pharmacokinetics, clinical efficacy, adverse effects, drug interactions, and dosage and administration of aripiprazole are discussed. Aripiprazole is a third-generation antipsychotic agent indicated for use in the treatment of schizophrenia. Unlike other antipsychotics, aripiprazole demonstrates mixed D2 and serotonin (5-HT1A) receptor agonist-antagonist activity that is hypothesized to improve schlzophrenia's positive and negative symptoms; the drug has been referred to as a dopamine-serotonin stabilizer. Aripiprazole is well absorbed, with peak plasma concentrations occurring within three to five hours after administration. The oral availability is 87%. The mean elimination half-life is about 75 hours for aripiprazole and 94 hours for its active metabolite. In controlled, randomized, multicenter trials, aripiprazole has demonstrated efficacy in the treatment of schizophrenia comparable to that of haloperidol and superior to placebo. In a single clinical trial, aripiprazole was superior to placebo in the treatment of acute mania. The most frequent adverse effects are headache, anxiety, insomnia, nausea, vomiting, and lightheadedness. Because aripiprazole is a substrate of both cytochrome P-450 isoenzymes 3A4 and 2D6, there is a potential for other drugs to affect its metabolism. The recommended starting dosage is 10 or 15 mg daily, preferably administered with meals. Aripiprazole offers an alternative to second-generation antipsychotic agents in the treatment of schizophrenia.
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PMID:Aripiprazole. 1468 20

Systemic mastocytosis (SM), as opposed to cutaneous-only mastocytosis, implies the presence of neoplastic mast cell infiltration in extracutaneous tissue. Mast cell disease in adults is often systemic and often involves the bone marrow. Typical clinical and laboratory features of SM include urticaria pigmentosa, mast cell mediator symptoms (eg, headache, flushing, lightheadedness, urticaria and pruritus, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vasodilatory shock), bone pain (eg, osteoporosis, lytic bone lesions, and fractures), hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, eosinophilia, elevated serum tryptase and histamine, and bone marrow fibrosis and angiogenesis. SM may be indolent (no evidence of organ dysfunction), aggressive (presence of organ dysfunction), associated with another often chronic myeloid hematologic disease (SM-AHD), or present as mast cell leukemia or sarcoma. Mast cell-mediator symptoms are treated with histamine antagonists and cromolyn sodium. Indolent SM does not require cytoreductive therapy. Aggressive SM and SM-AHD are managed based on their molecular profile. Recent information suggests that FIP1-like-1-platelet-derived growth factor receptor-alpha(+) SM responds well to imatinib mesylate, whereas interferon-alpha should be considered as a first-line treatment in all of the other cases, including patients with Asp816Val(+) SM. Cladribine has been shown to be effective in patients who develop resistance to interferon treatment.
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PMID:Systemic mastocytosis: current concepts and treatment advances. 1508 68

A dysfunction of the vestibular system is commonly characterized by a combination of phenomena involving perceptual, ocular motor, postural, and autonomic manifestations: vertigo/dizziness, nystagmus, ataxia, and nausea. These 4 manifestations correlate with different aspects of vestibular function and emanate from different sites within the central nervous system. The diagnosis of vestibular syndromes always requires interdisciplinary thinking. A detailed history allows early differentiation into 9 categories that serve as a practical guide for differential diagnosis: (1) dizziness and lightheadedness; (2) single or recurrent attacks of vertigo; (3) sustained vertigo; (4) positional/positioning vertigo; (5) oscillopsia; (6) vertigo associated with auditory dysfunction; (7) vertigo associated with brainstem or cerebellar symptoms; (8) vertigo associated with headache; and (9) dizziness or to-and-fro vertigo with postural imbalance. A careful and systematic neuro-ophthalmological and neuro-otological examination is also mandatory, especially to differentiate between central and peripheral vestibular disorders. Important signs are nystagmus, ocular tilt reaction, other central or peripheral ocular motor dysfunctions, or a unilateral or bilateral peripheral vestibular deficit. This deficit can be easily detected by the head-impulse test, the most relevant bedside test for the vestibulo-ocular reflex. Laboratory examinations are used to measure eye movements, to test semicircular canal, otolith, and spatial perceptional function and to determine postural control. It must, however, be kept in mind that all signs and ocular motor and vestibular findings have to be interpreted within the context of the patient's history and a complete neurological examination.
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PMID:General vestibular testing. 1566 Nov 19


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