Gene/Protein Disease Symptom Drug Enzyme Compound
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Query: UMLS:C0016382 (flushing)
6,387 document(s) hit in 31,850,051 MEDLINE articles (0.00 seconds)

We compared the rise in nasal airway resistance (NAR) provoked by topical application of substance P (SP) and of methacholine (MCH) in seventeen patients suffering from rhinitis and fourteen control subjects. Challenges with SP or MCH were separated by a week or more. NAR was measured by posterior rhinomanometry before and 10 min after intranasal administration of SP (10-40 nmol) or MCH (3-12 mumol). The two groups of subjects had similar baseline levels of NAR and similar small responses to buffered saline. Substance P but not MCH provoked cutaneous flushing in all subjects. Both SP and MCH provoked a significantly greater increase in NAR in patients suffering from rhinitis than in control subjects. The increase in NAR was dose-dependent, and on a molar basis, SP was 375-500-fold more potent than MCH. Pretreatment with 200 micrograms of a topically active anticholinergic agent, oxytropium bromide, prevented the rise in NAR caused by 12 mumol of MCH but not that caused by 40 nmol of SP in six patients suffering from rhinitis. We conclude that SP is absorbed across the nasal mucosa and causes cutaneous vasodilation, that MCH and SP cause a greater rise in NAR in patients suffering from rhinitis than in control subjects, that SP is about 500-fold more potent than MCH in increasing NAR, and that the rise in NAR caused by SP is not mediated by postganglionic parasympathetic mechanisms.
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PMID:Nasal response to substance P and methacholine in subjects with and without allergic rhinitis. 245 27

From 2 to 4.5 months of age, 80 crossbred gilts were reared in a conventional grower unit where they were naturally exposed to mycoplasmal and bacterial pathogens that cause pneumonia and atrophic rhinitis. At 4.5 months of age, gilts were moved to environmentally regulated rooms (4.9 x 7.3 m) and assigned at random to 1 of 2 treatment groups: low aerial concentration of ammonia (4 to 12 ppm; mean, 7 ppm) or moderate aerial concentration of ammonia (26 to 45 ppm, mean, 35 ppm). Low concentration of ammonia was obtained by flushing of manure pits weekly, whereas moderate concentration of ammonia was maintained by adding anhydrous ammonia to manure pits that were not flushed. Gilts were weighed biweekly. Mean daily gain (MDG) was less (P < 0.01) for gilts exposed to moderate concentration of ammonia than for gilts exposed to low concentration of ammonia after 2 weeks in their respective environments. By 4 and 6 weeks, however, MDG was similar between the 2 treatment groups. After 6 weeks in these environments, 20 gilts from each treatment group were slaughtered, and prevalence and severity of lung lesions and snout grades were determined. At slaughter, body weight was greater (P < 0.01) in gilts exposed to low, rather than moderate, ammonia concentration (94.5 vs 86.8 kg; SEM, 3.3 kg). Percentage of lung tissue containing lesions (18 vs 12) and snout grade (2.8 vs 3.1) were similar between gilts exposed to low or moderate concentration of ammonia. The remaining 20 gilts in each treatment group were maintained in their respective environments, exposed daily to mature boars and bred at first estrus.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
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PMID:Growth and reproductive performance, during exposure to ammonia, of gilts afflicted with pneumonia and atrophic rhinitis. 811 50

Naturally occurring cryptococcosis in five cats, a dog and a koala is described. Involvement of the nasopharynx was documented in all patients, and nasopharyngeal mass lesions accounted for the major presenting complaints in four. Signs referable to nasopharyngeal disease included snoring, stertor, inspiratory dyspnoea and aerophagia. Diagnoses were made by caudal rhinoscopy using a retroverted flexible endoscope, vigorous orthograde flushing with saline, or at necropsy. Concurrent cryptococcal rhinitis was present in all cases, although involvement appeared limited to the caudal nasal cavity in most cases. Typical signs of nasal cavity disease, such as sneezing and nasal discharge, were often absent. Treatment of nasopharyngeal cryptococcosis should include physical dislodgement or debulking of lesion(s) to provide immediate alleviation of upper airway obstruction, followed by systemic antifungal therapy to eliminate residual infection from the nasal cavity. Infections caused by Cryptococcus neoformans var gattii accounted for a disproportionately large number of these cases.
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PMID:Nasopharyngeal cryptococcosis. 925 19

The efficacy of intranasal triamcinolone acetonide in seasonal and allergic rhinitis has been evaluated in clinical trials and has been compared with antihistamines and other intranasal corticosteroids. Intranasal corticosteroids are either as equally effective as or more effective than comparative drugs. Intranasal corticosteroids are particularly useful as they decrease membrane permeability and inhibit both early and late phase reactions to allergens. They minimise the nasal secretory response and reduce the sensitivity of local nasal irritant receptors. A potential benefit of topical application is the flushing action of the nasal mucosa, which may reduce allergens and secretions. In addition to seasonal and perennial rhinitis, intranasal corticosteroids have additional benefits when used to reduce inflammation in the treatment of sinusitis and may help in decreasing secondary rhinovirus infections. Furthermore, suboptimal control of asthma can be avoided by treatment of allergic rhinitis with intranasal corticosteroids. In clinical trials, common adverse effects for triamcinolone acetonide include sneezing, dry, mucosa, nasal irritation, sinus discomfort, throat discomfort, epistaxis and headache. Posterior subcapsular cataract formation has not been seen with triamcinolone acetonide. Recent literature evaluating systemic absorption of intranasal corticosteroids have shown surprising results where significant absorption has occurred with intranasal budesonide and fluticasone propionate. Growth and hypothalamic pituitary axis (HPA) function studies have been reviewed, with some intranasal corticosteroids showing changes with continual use. A retrospective study in children receiving daily triamcinolone acetonide for 12 months showed no effect on height and bodyweight. Triamcinolone acetonide at standard dosages (110 or 220microg once or twice a day) does not appear to suppress adrenal gland function and is effective in relieving most symptoms of allergic rhinitis. The International Consensus Conference Proceedings on Rhinitis now currently recommends the use of intranasal corticosteroids as first line therapy, since they have been found to be well tolerated and effective with minimal adverse effects and, specifically, no cognitive impairment. The recommended maximum dose of aqueous triamcinolone acetonide in adults and children is 220microg once a day. The aerosol form may be recommended in children between 7 and 12 years old, up to 440microg once a day or in divided doses. Duration of allergy treatment is generally for the length of each allergy season. If symptoms are perennial, then a reduction of dosage is made to the lowest effective dose with monitoring every 3 months for risk and benefit assessment. Complications to watch for include bleeding, and possible septal perforation and nasal candidiasis, although these are rare.
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PMID:A risk-benefit assessment of intranasal triamcinolone acetonide in allergic rhinitis. 1105 Dec 18

Vardenafil, a novel selective phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor, was evaluated in its first large-scale at-home trial. A total of 601 men with mild to severe erectile dysfunction (ED) were enrolled in this multi-centre, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of 12 weeks of treatment with either placebo or 5, 10 and 20 mg of vardenafil. Primary endpoints were Q3 (vaginal penetration) and Q4 (maintenance of erection) of the International Index of Erectile Function (IIEF). In the intent-to-treat population (n=580), the changes from baseline for 5, 10 and 20 mg vardenafil (1.2, 1.3 and 1.5, respectively) were all improved (P<0.001) over placebo (0.2) for Q3 and were similarly improved for Q4 (1.4, 1.5 and 1.7) compared to placebo (0.5) (P<0.001). All vardenafil doses improved all IIEF domains compared to placebo (P<0.001). The percentage of successful intercourses was between 71 and 75% for the three vardenafil doses. For the 20 mg dose, 80% of the patients experienced improved erections (GAQ) compared to 30% for placebo. Most frequent treatment-emergent adverse events were headache (7-15%), flushing (10-11%) and up to 7% for dyspepsia or rhinitis. Vardenafil treatment resulted in a high efficacy and low adverse-event profile in a population with mixed ED etiologies.
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PMID:The efficacy and tolerability of vardenafil, a new, oral, selective phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor, in patients with erectile dysfunction: the first at-home clinical trial. 1149 74

Long-term efficacy and safety of sildenafil was assessed in 1008 patients with erectile dysfunction (ED) enrolled in four flexible-dose (25 - 100 mg), open-label, 36- or 52-week extension studies. After 36 and 52 weeks, 92% and 89% of patients felt that treatment with sildenafil had improved their erections. Responses to a Sexual Function Questionnaire indicated that 52 weeks of sildenafil treatment resulted in clinically significant improvements in the duration and firmness of erections, overall satisfaction with sex life, and the frequency of stimulated erections. Commonly reported adverse events (AEs) were headache, flushing, dyspepsia, and rhinitis, which were generally mild to moderate. Reports of abnormal vision were consistent with previous clinical trials. The occurrence of treatment-related cardiovascular AEs, such as hypertension, tachycardia, and palpitation, was <1%. Discontinuations due to treatment-related AEs were low (2%). Long-term therapy does not diminish the efficacy of sildenafil in patients with ED and remains well tolerated.
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PMID:Assessment of the efficacy and safety of Viagra (sildenafil citrate) in men with erectile dysfunction during long-term treatment. 1189 May 12

Vardenafil selectively inhibits phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5), an enzyme which hydrolyses cyclic guanosine monophosphate in the cavernosum tissue of the penis. Inhibition of PDE5 results in increased arterial blood flow leading to enlargement of the corpus cavernosum. Because of the increased tumescence, veins are compressed between the corpus cavernosum and the tunica albuginea, resulting in an erection. Vardenafil has a high bioavailabilty and is rapidly absorbed. An erection of >60% rigidity was maintained for approximately twice as long following visual stimulation in patients treated with vardenafil 10 or 20mg than in recipients of placebo. In a large, placebo-controlled trial in patients with mild to severe erectile dysfunction (ED), vardenafil 5, 10 or 20mg taken as needed over a 12-week period significantly improved the scores in questions 3 and 4 of the International Index of Erectile Function (IIEF). The rate of successful attempts at intercourse with ejaculation was also significantly higher with vardenafil (71 to 75%) than in the placebo group (39.5%), and significantly more patients treated with vardenafil than placebo responded 'yes' to a Global Assessment Question (GAQ) asking if treatment had improved erections. In a 26-week trial in 736 men with ED of varied aetiologies and severity patients receiving vardenafil 5, 10 or 20mg experienced significantly improved erections with 85% of vardenafil 20mg recipients reporting improved erectile function (assessed using the GAQ) compared with 28% of placebo recipients. Treatment with vardenafil also significantly improved scores in response to questions 3 and 4 of the IIEF compared with placebo. A 12-week trial in 452 men with ED associated with diabetes mellitus demonstrated that treatment with vardenafil 20mg compared with placebo significantly improved IIEF erectile function domain scores and the rate of positive responders to the erectile improvement GAQ. Similar results were reported in a placebo-controlled trial of vardenafil 10 to 20mg involving 440 patients with ED after radical prostatectomy. Adverse events associated with vardenafil were those commonly associated with PDE5 inhibitors: headache, flushing, dyspepsia and rhinitis. These were mostly dose-dependent and mild to moderate in intensity.
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PMID:Vardenafil. 1202 79

(1) Dry mouth (xerostomia) is a frequent complication of radiation therapy for cancers of the ear nose and throat. Local measures such as saliva substitutes and anetholtrithione are either moderately effective, inadequately evaluated or little better than placebo. (2) Marketing authorization has been granted in France for an oral formulation of pilocarpine, an old parasympathomimetic agent, in the treatment of radiotherapy-induced xerostomia. (3) According to the results of two double-blind trials, pilocarpine (15-30 mg/day) improves symptoms in about 50 % of patients, compared to improvement in 25% of patients taking placebo. The drug is slow to take effect and has little impact on daily life. It is not known whether pilocarpine helps prevent the complications of xerostomia. (4) Most adverse effects of pilocarpine are due to its parasympathomimetic effects, such as sweating, urinary frequency, flushing, rhinitis and nausea. Pilocarpine must therefore be used with caution in patients with asthma, cardiac arrhythmia, iridocyclitis, and closed-angle glaucoma. (5) In France, this pilocarpine formulation costs 18 times more than a preparation of pilocarpine 2% eye drops used orally (off licence). (6) In practice, patients needing symptomatic treatment of xerostomia after radiotherapy may benefit from oral pilocarpine but, given its limited efficacy and its adverse effects, other local treatments should be tried first.
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PMID:Oral pilocarpine: new preparation. Xerostomia after radiation therapy: moderately effective but costly. 1219 76

The durability of key efficacy response parameters and safety of vardenafil was evaluated in a pivotal trial conducted in a broad population of men with erectile dysfunction (ED) in North America. In this randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, multicenter, fixed-dose, parallel-group, 6-month comparison study, men >18 years of age with ED for >6 months received 5-mg, 10-mg, and 20-mg doses of vardenafil as needed for up to 26 weeks. The primary efficacy variables were the International Index of Erectile Function (IIEF)-Erectile Function (EF) domain scores, and the Sexual Encounter Profile (SEP) mean per-patient success rates for penetration (SEP question 2) and maintenance of erections (SEP question 3). Safety data were also collected over time. Improvement in all primary efficacy variables was observed in all vardenafil groups versus placebo. These improvements occurred early and were either sustained or increased through week 26. Vardenafil in 10-mg and 20-mg doses was significantly superior to placebo at all time points for all efficacy variables (P <0.01), and all doses were superior to placebo at endpoint (P <0.001). Most treatment-emergent adverse events (headache, flushing, dyspepsia, and rhinitis) were mild or moderate in intensity, and incidence generally decreased over time. All 3 doses of vardenafil were superior to placebo across all primary efficacy variables and all study time points in a broad range of patients with ED, regardless of etiology or severity. Vardenafil was well tolerated. These results demonstrate that vardenafil provides sustained efficacy with reduced incidence of nuisance side effects over time. High resolution video, medium resolution video, low resolution video.
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PMID:Sustained efficacy and tolerability of vardenafil, a highly potent selective phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor, in men with erectile dysfunction: results of a randomized, double-blind, 26-week placebo-controlled pivotal trial. 1265 55

Alcoholic drinks are capable of triggering a wide range of allergic and allergic-like responses, including rhinitis, itching, facial swelling, headache, cough and asthma. Limited epidemiological data suggests that many individuals are affected and that sensitivities occur to a variety of drinks, including wine, beer and spirits. In surveys of asthmatics, over 40% reported the triggering of allergic or allergic-like symptoms following alcoholic drink consumption and 30 - 35% reported worsening of their asthma. Sensitivity to ethanol itself can play a role in triggering adverse responses, particularly in Asians, which is due mainly to a reduced capacity to metabolize acetaldehyde. In Caucasians, specific non-alcohol components are the main cause of sensitivities to alcoholic drinks. Allergic sensitivities to specific components of beer, spirits and distilled liquors have been described. Wine is clearly the most commonly reported trigger for adverse responses. Sensitivities to wine appear to be due mainly to pharmacological intolerances to specific components, such as biogenic amines and the sulphite additives. Histamine in wine has been associated with the triggering of a wide spectrum of adverse symptoms, including sneezing, rhinitis, itching, flushing, headache and asthma. The sulphite additives in wine have been associated with triggering asthmatic responses. Clinical studies have confirmed sensitivities to the sulphites in wine in limited numbers of individuals, but the extent to which the sulphites contribute to wine sensitivity overall is not clear. The aetiology of wine-induced asthmatic responses may be complex and may involve several co-factors.
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PMID:Allergic and asthmatic reactions to alcoholic drinks. 1274 10


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