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Symptom
Drug
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Target Concepts:
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Query: UMLS:C0012833 (
dizziness
)
9,689
document(s) hit in 31,850,051 MEDLINE articles (0.00 seconds)
The value of echocardiography in the evaluation of
dizziness
was studied in 151 consecutive patients. Twenty-two patients, on further review, were found to have related complaints, seizures and syncope mainly, but not
dizziness
. Twenty-four patients had vertigo, 67 had nonvertiginous
dizziness
, and in 38 patients, there was insufficient information to categorize the
dizziness
as being vertigo or nonvertiginous
dizziness
. When the 22 nondizzy patients were compared with the 129 dizzy patients, the only statistically significant differences were that there were more blacks in the nondizzy group and that the aortic root dimension was, on average, 0.4 cm larger in the nondizzy group. These findings, although statistically significant, appeared to be clinically insignificant. There was, however, a high prevalence of valvular heart disease in both the nondizzy and two of the three dizzy subgroups. In most cases, the valvular abnormality had not been suspected clinically. But in no case was significant information added by echocardiography that helped in patient management. Thus, in the dizzy patient, echocardiography should be
reserved
for specific cardiac indications and not used as a routine screening test.
...
PMID:Should echocardiography be used to screen dizzy patients? 317 55
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a primary myocardial disease of unknown cause that is characterized by a hypertrophied, nondilated, hypercontractile left ventricle. Its etiology and pathogenesis remain undefined but the three principal factors implicated are a genetic predisposition, a hypersensitivity to catecholamines, and an abnormal calcium metabolism. The hypertrophy typically involves the intraventricular septum to varying degrees, but may also involve the apex or free wall and even be concentric. The disease occurs in either an obstructive or a nonobstructive form depending on whether an intraventricular pressure gradient can be demonstrated at rest or on provocation. The gradient and obstruction to outflow is usually seen in patients with asymmetric septal hypertrophy (ASH) and anterior motion of the mitral valve during systole (SAM). Abnormal left ventricular diastolic function characterized by inadequate filling and impaired relaxation has been shown to be very important in both the obstructive and nonobstructive forms of the disease. In addition, inadequate coronary vasodilator reserve as a result of small vessel disease, microvascular spasm, and/or low capillary density per unit myocardial mass has been implicated as an important cause of ischemia in patients without coronary artery disease. HCM is a disease of young adulthood with relatively slow progression; young patients are often asymptomatic, whereas older patients are more limited by dyspnea, angina,
dizziness
, or syncope. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias occur in 30% of patients, and high-grade ventricular arrhythmias occur in over 75%. The annual mortality is 3-5%. The common mode of demise is sudden cardiac death. Therefore, the primary objectives of treatment are the amelioration of symptoms, the control of arrhythmias, and the prevention of sudden death. Beta-adrenoreceptor blocking agents decrease myocardial contractility and oxygen demands and increase ventricular volume; therefore, they are most useful in patients with the obstructive form of HCM. Calcium channel antagonists enhance left ventricular relaxation, relieve microvascular spasm, and improve coronary filling and therefore are the agents of choice in patients with diastolic dysfunction. The ability of the calcium channel antagonists to decrease contractility makes them valuable in patients with obstructive HCM. Arterial vasodilators, diuretics, nitrates, and inotropic agents should be avoided because they can increase the intraventricular gradient. Myomyectomy is
reserved
for those patients with the obstructive form of HCM whose symptoms are refractory to medical therapy.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)
...
PMID:Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: current views on etiology, pathophysiology, and management. 331 Jun 37
The efficacy of BW942C, a novel enkephalinlike pentapeptide antidiarrheal agent, was compared with the efficacy of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and the combination of the two agents in a placebo-controlled trial of the 72-h treatment of acute diarrhea. Subjects with diarrhea but without bloody stools or fever greater than 102 degrees F (38.9 degrees C) were enrolled. Administered to 134 U.S. adults with diarrhea that developed shortly after their arrival in Guadalajara, Mexico, BW942C was more efficacious than TMP-SMX in relieving diarrhea and cramps in the first 12 h of therapy, especially among subjects with diarrhea caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli. In the BW942C treatment group, 25% of subjects eventually took additional therapy because their diarrhea did not respond to BW942C alone. Neurological side effects such as
dizziness
and light-headedness occurred more frequently among BW942C-treated subjects. Therapy for 3 days with TMP-SMX provided lasting relief comparable with previously reported 5-day therapy. Use of the combination of both agents provided the benefits of prompt relief afforded by BW942C and lasting relief afforded by TMP-SMX. BW942C might prove to be an agent suitable for the treatment of acute diarrhea, with TMP-SMX
reserved
for treatment of those who do not respond adequately. The empiric use of the combination of BW942C and TMP-SMX appears appropriate for the treatment of severe nondysenteric disease.
...
PMID:Role of a novel antidiarrheal agent, BW942C, alone or in combination with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole in the treatment of traveler's diarrhea. 352 36
The pharmacokinetics, clinical efficacy, and adverse effects of three calcium-channel blocking agents--verapamil, nifedipine, and diltiazem--are reviewed. Verapamil, nifedipine, and diltiazem are absorbed well after oral dosing, but absolute bioavailability of each is reduced substantially by a first-pass effect. Each drug is metabolized extensively (verapamil and diltiazem to moderately active metabolites) by the liver. A substantial percentage of each drug is bound to plasma proteins, but the binding is of clinical importance only for nifedipine (92--98% protein bound). Intravenous verapamil has become the agent of first choice for treatment of acute paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT); use of chronic oral verapamil therapy for prophylaxis remains controversial. Verapamil and diltiazem have been evaluated with mixed results for atrial flutter and fibrillation. For treatment of myocardial ischemia, calcium-channel blockers may be of some value (possibly in combination with nitrates of B blockers). All three agents have been studied in patients with exertional angina with good results. Calcium-channel blockers appear to be equal with nitrates for treatment of variant angina. Patients with hypertropic cardiomyopathy have been treated with verapamil and nifedipine with promising results. Nifedipine has been effective for treatment of essential hypertension. Adverse effects of calcium-channel blockers have been relatively minor or infrequent. Diltiazem overall has the best side-effect profile, with adverse effects causing discontinuation of therapy in about 2--10% of patients; verapamil in intermediate (8--10%) and nifedipine the worst (17%) in this respect. The most common side effects generally are fatigue, headache,
dizziness
, skin rash, and peripheral edema. While they generally should be
reserved
for patients in whom more conventional therapy has failed (except those with PSVT), calcium-channel blockers appear to have a valid role as reserve agents for exertional and variant angina, cardiomyopathy, and hypertension.
...
PMID:Update on calcium-channel blocking agents. 635 66
Autoimmune inner ear disease is an uncommon but distinct clinical entity. Our ignorance of the immune mediating pathways, need of further animal model experimentation, variability of laboratory test results and of patient treatment responses illustrate how poorly we understand this disorder. The purpose of this review is to compare practical vs theoretical management of autoimmune inner ear disease, based upon our current knowledge of the disease process and upon a review of clinical experience at the Cleveland Clinic Foundation. Representative case histories are presented. The following preliminary conclusions are discussed: Autoimmune inner ear disease can present as a systemic or localized otologic immune disorder. Hearing loss can begin at any age, with unilateral or bilateral sudden onset, fluctuating or progressive symptoms, with or without associated
dizziness
. The pathogenesis of autoimmune inner ear disease is probably multifactorial (cellular and humoral). The sensitivity and specificity of different laboratory tests vary greatly, but even the most sensitive tests may be falsely normal when symptoms are not acute or when the patient is taking immunosuppressant medication. The mainstay of autoimmune inner ear treatment is steroids: however, cytotoxic drugs are recommended when there is no response to steroid treatment. Apheresis is
reserved
for selected cases. Hearing improvement can be dramatic even after 2 months of profound deafness. Flare-ups of autoimmune ear disease are best managed by increasing steroid dosage or adding cytotoxic medications. Unfortunately, some patients will develop progressive hearing loss despite vigorous treatment.
...
PMID:Practical versus theoretical management of autoimmune inner ear disease. 637 41
The vast majority of children who have symptoms (ie, cardiac failure, palpitations,
dizziness
) due to supraventricular tachycardias are successfully managed by medical treatment. Antiarrhythmic drug therapy may be complicated by side effects or become ineffective so that radiofrequency catheter ablation, which destroys the myocardial structure responsible for arrhythmias, can now offer an attractive option to lifelong drug therapy. Immediate results for supraventricular tachycardias due to a reentry mechanism or to an atrial ectopic focus are good, with a success rate over 80% and rare immediate complications. However, the long-term sequelae of the procedure on the growing heart have not been established and the risk of subsequent atrial and ventricular arrhythmias must be considered in young patients. For this reason, I believe that today, radiofrequency ablation should be
reserved
for young patients who have life-threatening symptoms or who have arrhythmias that are refractory to medical treatment, and for older patients who will need a lifelong drug therapy.
...
PMID:Drugs and ablation in the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias in children. 828 85
A comparative study in 103 unselected patients with erectile dysfunction between MUSE up to 1000 micrograms and intracavernous Alprostadil (Prostavasin) up to 20 micrograms provided total response-rates of 43% (MUSE) vs 70% (Prostavasin). Complete rigid erections were reached in 10% (MUSE) vs 48% (Prostavasin). The average end-diastolic flow values in the deep penile arteries ranged between 9.2-9.4 cm/s after MUSE and 4.5-4.8 cm/s after i.c. Alprostadil confirming the investigator's assessment, that in the vast majority of patients MUSE were not able to induce a complete cavernous smooth muscle relaxation. In terms of side effects the reported penile pain/ burning-rate after MUSE was 31.4% compared to 10.6% after i.c. Alprostadil. In addition after MUSE clinically relevant systemic side-effects like
dizziness
, sweating and hypotension occurred in 5.8% with syncope in 1%. No circulatory side-effects were encountered after i.c. Alprostadil. Urethral bleeding after MUSE-application was observed in 4.8%. Due to the superior efficacy and lower side-effects self-injection therapy with Alprostadil remains the 'Gold Standard' in the management of male impotence. MUSE should be
reserved
for a subset of patients suffering from erectile dysfunction.
...
PMID:Transurethral alprostadil with MUSE (medicated urethral system for erection) vs intracavernous alprostadil--a comparative study in 103 patients with erectile dysfunction. 954 92
It has long been recognised that neural factors are of considerable importance in lower urinary tract function. Whilst reduction in the bulk of the human prostate is feasible, experience on this therapeutic approach proved to be disappointing. Existing trial data with the agent finasteride are reviewed. A number of formulations derived from plant extracts have been advocated but their mechanism of action remain largely obscure and there is a dearth of placebo controlled information to support their efficacy. Experience over the last 10 years has demonstrated efficacy with the use of alpha adrenoceptor blockade in the management of BPH. Alpha adrenoceptor antagonists relax the prostatic smooth muscle by interrupting the sympathetic pathway at the receptor level. Recent developments in this field include the recognition that there are alpha I adrenoceptor subtypes. The functional adrenoceptor in the human prostate is predominantly the alpha IA - subtype. Of the alpha 1-adrenoceptor antagonists only tamsulosin discriminates between the alpha 1-adrenoceptor subtypes. Alpha 1-blockers should be used in first-line medical therapy for BPH and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors
reserved
for those patients in whom alpha-blocker therapy fails. Alpha I-blockers such as doxazosin, tamsulosin, terazosin, alfuzosin are effective in the treatment of BPH both in younger and in older men. The drugs are well tolerated. The majority of side effects were classified as minor and mild. The most common complaints, as with other alpha-blockers, are
dizziness
, fatigue and headache, and these are often transient. In contrast, finasteride can lead to impotence, reduced libido. gynaecomastia or ejaculatory disorders. Men with small prostates may not be suitable candidates for finasteride therapy.
...
PMID:Efficacy and tolerability of drugs for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. 1158 66
Levetiracetam has recently been licensed in Europe and the U.S.A. for use as an adjunctive agent in partial epilepsy with or without secondary generalization. The mode of action has yet to be elucidated, but may involve a new brain-specific binding site, the ligand for which is unknown. Levetiracetam has a favorable pharmacokinetic profile, with rapid and almost complete oral absorption, almost 100% bioavailability, linear, dose-dependent maximum plasma concentrations and minimal plasma protein binding. Excretion is mainly renal, with most of the drug being eliminated unchanged. Levetiracetam does not have an effect on the major drug-metabolizing hepatic enzymes, and thus is associated with a low incidence of interactions with other antiepileptic drugs (AEDs). These properties make it a well-tolerated drug, with the most common reported side effects being asthenia, somnolence, headache and
dizziness
. Antiepileptic properties of levetiracetam demonstrated in animal studies have been borne out by large double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trials, with significantly improved responder rates (>/= 50% reduction in seizure frequency from baseline) and number of seizure- free patients versus placebo. In addition, efficacy appears to be maintained over the long term and no evidence for the development of tolerance to the effects of levetiracetam has been seen. (c) 2001 Prous Science. All rights
reserved
.
...
PMID:Levetiracetam: A new antiepileptic drug for the adjunctive therapy of chronic epilepsy. 1273 64
Psychosis only rarely occurs in patients with untreated Parkinson's disease. Much more commonly, psychosis is induced by drug therapy for Parkinson's disease and is the strongest known risk factor for nursing home placement. Delusions are less frequent than hallucinations, but are more concerning as they are often paranoid in nature. Treatment begins with a search for correctable infectious, toxic, and metabolic aetiologies. If symptoms persist, anti-Parkinson's disease medications are slowly reduced. However, withdrawal of these drugs usually worsens parkinsonism and is often not tolerated. Certain atypical antipsychotics can be used to treat psychosis without compromising motor function. The choice of atypical antipsychotic is largely based on ease of use and adverse effect profile as most have comparable efficacy in improving psychosis. Currently, there are five marketed atypical drugs - clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine and ziprasidone. Ziprasidone is the only agent whose adverse effect profile has not been reported in Parkinson's disease. The most common adverse effects of clozapine in Parkinson's disease are sedation, orthostatic hypotension and sialorrhoea. Sedation is generally helpful since these patients are frequently awake at night and tend to have worse behavioural problems then. Clozapine does not induce deterioration of motor function, but it has the potential to cause agranulocytosis, which is idiosyncratic and not dose-related. In risperidone-treated Parkinson's disease patients, reported adverse effects include somnolence, sialorrhoea,
dizziness
, palpitations, constipation, delirium, fatigue, leg cramps, depression, urinary incontinence and hypotension. Although in some Parkinson's disease studies, risperidone has been well tolerated, others have shown that many patients are unable to tolerate the drug due to deterioration of motor function. While an initial study of olanzapine in Parkinson's disease psychosis showed the drug to be effective without deterioration of motor function, succeeding reports demonstrated a deleterious effect of the drug on motor functioning. The most common adverse effects of quetiapine in Parkinson's disease patients are sedation and orthostatic hypotension. There is a lack of double-blind trials; however, cumulative reports involving >200 Parkinson's disease patients strongly suggest that quetiapine is well tolerated and effective. Unlike clozapine, it does not improve tremor and may induce mild deterioration of motor function. Recently, cholinesterase inhibitors have been reported to alleviate psychosis in Parkinson's disease. Although ondansetron, an antiemetic with antiserotonergic properties, has been reported to relieve psychosis in Parkinson's disease, its prohibitive cost has prevented further study in this population. Electroconvulsive treatment is generally
reserved
for the patient with psychotic depression who is unable to tolerate any pharmacological therapy.
...
PMID:Treatment of psychosis in Parkinson's disease: safety considerations. 1281 32
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