Gene/Protein Disease Symptom Drug Enzyme Compound
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Query: UMLS:C0012833 (dizziness)
 9,689 document(s) hit in 31,850,051 MEDLINE articles (0.00 seconds)

Stool examination was performed on 2,083 Thai children from orphanages and primary schools. Hymenolepis nana infection was found only in children from orphanages with a prevalence of 13.12 per cent. Males had a statistically significant higher prevalence of infection than females. Most infected children were asymptomatic. In symptomatic infected children, the symptoms were mild and non-specific such as pruritus ani, abdominal pain, diarrhea, anorexia, headache, and dizziness. Praziquantel in a single oral dose of 25 mg/kg body weight was effective and well tolerated in Hymenolepis nana infected Thai children.
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PMID:Hymenolepis nana infection in Thai children. 1107 70

Artemether-lumefantrine (A-L), a new fixed-dose oral antimalarial drug, combines the fast onset of action of artemether (an artemisinin derivative) in terms of parasite clearance with the high cure rate of lumefantrine in the treatment of acute uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria. The extensive clinical trial database of A-L has allowed a comprehensive evaluation of its tolerability and safety in a total of 1869 patients (including 243 children aged 5-12 years and 368 children aged < 5 years). The most commonly reported and possibly related adverse effects following A-L therapy involved the gastro-intestinal (abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea) and central nervous (headache, dizziness) systems. Pruritus and rash were reported by < 2% of patients. More than 90% of the reported adverse events, many of which overlapped considerably with the clinical symptomatology or evolution of acute malaria, were rated mild to moderate in intensity. Compared to A-L, significantly higher incidences of vomiting and pruritus were observed with chloroquine, dizziness, nausea and vomiting with mefloquine, somnolence with pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine, and vomiting and dizziness with quinine. There were no serious or persistent neurological side-effects related to A-L administration. A-L did not lead to any clinically relevant alterations of the laboratory parameters. Serial electrocardiographic data were available for 713 patients. The frequency of QT interval prolongations was similar to or lower than that observed with chloroquine, mefloquine, or artesunate + mefloquine; these changes were considerably less frequent than with quinine or halofantrine. All patients with QT prolongation remained asymptomatic and no adverse clinical cardiac events were reported. Artemether-lumefantrine can thus be expected to show, both in children and in adults, a favourable safety profile for the treatment of acute, uncomplicated, P. falciparum malaria; it could as well be a reserve treatment option for travellers to endemic countries.
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PMID:An integrated assessment of the clinical safety of artemether-lumefantrine: a new oral fixed-dose combination antimalarial drug. 1112 48

Anaemia, manifesting as fatigue, dizziness, dyspnoea and anorexia, is common among patients with cancer. A host of factors, such as neoplastic bone marrow infiltration, impaired haematopoiesis, autoimmune haemolysis, impaired endogenous erthropoietin production and treatment with cytotoxic agents contribute to the underlying pathology. Traditionally, blood transfusions have formed the mainstay of therapy for the treatment of cancer-related anaemia. Numerous clinical trials have subsequently confirmed the safety and therapeutic utility of recombinant human erythropoietin (rHuEPO) in anaemic cancer patients, including those with haematological malignancies, such as multiple myeloma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Indeed, well over 50% of unselected patients treated with rHuEPO can be expected to respond with increases in haemoglobin level and/or elimination of transfusion need. In addition, a low baseline serum erythropoietin level can identify those patients with haematological malignancies having a very high likelihood of responding to rHuEPO therapy. These findings, in combination with the possibility of titrating to a lower, maintenance dose, have improved the cost-benefit relationship and thus support the use of rHuEPO as an appropriate alternative to blood transfusions for the management of anaemic patients with lymphoma and myeloma.
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PMID:The role of recombinant human erythropoietin in the management of anaemic cancer patients: focus on haematological malignancies. 1118 81

Hypercalcemia is a well-known manifestation of paraneoplastic syndromes associated with a variety of malignancies. However, colon cancer has only rarely been associated with hypercalcemia of malignancy. We present the case of a patient with recurrent adenosquamous carcinoma of the ascending colon found to have hypercalcemia. The patient is a 76-year-old white woman who initially presented with colon cancer in the cecum and underwent a right hemicolectomy. All lymph nodes and surgical margins were free of tumor. Pathological examination at that time revealed adenosquamous carcinoma of the colon. Eight months later she complained of dizziness, anorexia, and constipation and was found to have a calcium level of 13.6 mg/dL. CT scan revealed a mass measuring 10.5 to 12.7 cm in the right hepatic lobe, and a bone scan was normal. Her intact parathyroid hormone (PTH) level was 6 pg/mL (normal 12-72) and her PTH-related protein (PTHrP) level was 25.7 pmol/L (normal <1.3). She then underwent a hepatic resection. The serum PTH, calcium, and PTHrP levels normalized after resection. Hypercalcemia of malignancy in colon cancer is rare and has an association with adenosquamous histology. The hypercalcemia is attributed to PTHrP, and here we demonstrate this in the serum and tumor specimens. The effects of PTHrP are shown to be short-lived postoperatively. We find only 14 other cases in the literature of hypercalcemia related to a colonic neoplasm, and this is the only patient reported to be surviving. The diagnosis of a paraneoplastic syndrome mediated via PTHrP should be considered when hypercalcemia is encountered in the setting of metastatic colon carcinoma.
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PMID:Paraneoplastic hypercalcemia in a patient with adenosquamous cancer of the colon. 1140 9

Gastric cancer is often diagnosed in middle-aged patients undergoing upper gastrointestinal endoscopy for abdominal complaints or constitutional symptoms, such as dyspepsia, vomiting or anorexia, weight loss, anemia, jaundice, and ascites. Sometimes, all of these symptoms may be absent, and gastric cancer is diagnosed after detection of metastases to target organs, such as the liver or lung. In a few rare cases, however, even these metastatic localizations may be absent, and clinical signs are only represented by atypical symptoms caused by neurologic metastatic involvement. We report an exceptionally rare case of gastric cancer in which the only presenting symptoms were headache and dizziness caused by a single cerebellar metastasis.
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PMID:Cerebellar metastasis as a unique presenting feature of gastric cancer. 1141

Almost every second trekker or climber develops two to three symptoms of the high altitude illness after a rapid ascent (> 300 m/day) to an altitude above 4000 m. We distinguish two forms of high altitude illness, a cerebral form called acute mountain sickness and a pulmonary form called high altitude pulmonary edema. Essentially, acute mountain sickness is self-limiting and benign. Its symptoms are mild to moderate headache, loss of appetite, nausea, dizziness and insomnia. Nausea rarely progresses to vomiting, but if it does, this may anticipate a progression of the disease into the severe form of acute mountain sickness, called high altitude cerebral edema. Symptoms and signs of high altitude cerebral edema are severe headache, which is not relieved by acetaminophen, loss of movement coordination, ataxia and mental deterioration ending in coma. The mechanisms leading to acute mountain sickness are not very well understood; the loss of cerebral autoregulation and a vasogenic type of cerebral edema are being discussed. High altitude pulmonary edema presents in roughly twenty percent of the cases with mild symptoms of acute mountain sickness or even without any symptoms at all. Symptoms associated with high altitude pulmonary edema are incapacitating fatigue, chest tightness, dyspnoe at the minimal effort that advances to dyspnoe at rest and orthopnoe, and a dry non-productive cough that progresses to cough with pink frothy sputum due to hemoptysis. The hallmark of high altitude pulmonary edema is an exaggerated hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Successful prophylaxis and treatment of high altitude pulmonary edema using nifedipine, a pulmonary vasodilator, indicates that pulmonary hypertension is crucial for the development of high altitude pulmonary edema. The primary treatment of high altitude illness consists in improving hypoxemia and acclimatization. For prophylaxis a slow ascent at a rate of 300 m/day is recommended, if symptoms persist, acetazolamide at a dose of 500 mg/day is effective. Mild acute mountain sickness may also be treated with the same dose acetazolamide. Glucocorticoids are the first line treatment of the malignant form of acute mountain sickness. Nifedipine is effective only for the prophylaxis and treatment of high altitude pulmonary edema.
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PMID:[Mountaineering and altitude sickness]. 1144 1

According to the cholinergic hypothesis, the impairment of cognitive function and the behavioural disturbances that affect patients with Alzheimer's disease are mainly due to cortical deficiencies in cholinergic transmission. Numerous cholinesterase inhibitors have been investigated for treatment of this disease, the rationale being to support the cholinergic system by blocking the degradation of acetylcholine released from presynaptic neurons. These drugs can be classified as reversible (tacrine, donepezil and galantamine), pseudo-reversible (physostigmine, eptastigmine and rivastigmine) or irreversible (metrifonate) enzyme inhibitors. This article reviews efficacy and tolerability results from 6-month placebo-controlled studies of 7 cholinesterase inhibitors: tacrine (80 to 160 mg/day), donepezil (5 to 10 mg/day), rivastigmine (1 to 12 mg/day), metrifonate (30 to 80 mg/day), eptastigmine (30 to 60 mg/day), physostigmine (30 to 36 mg/day) and galantamine (8 to 32 mg/day). All these agents have demonstrated a statistically significant, although modest, effect versus placebo on the cognitive and global performance of patients with Alzheimer's disease. Dramatic clinical response has been seen in only 3 to 5% of patients. There are no major differences in terms of efficacy between the different drugs. The mean difference between drug and placebo effects on standardised psychometric scales is about 2 to 4 points on the cognitive subscale of the Alzheimer's Disease Assessment Scale (ADAS-Cog; a 70-point cognitive scale) and 0.2 to 0.5 points on the Clinician's Interview-Based Impression of Change with Caregiver Input (CIBIC-Plus; a 7-point global scale), or 5 to 14% of the average value of the scales. The most common adverse effects observed after administration of cholinesterase inhibitors are nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, dizziness, asthenia and anorexia, all symptoms linked to cholinergic overstimulation. These effects are dose related and largely depend on the degree of cholinesterase inhibition. Also important is the rate of onset of cholinesterase inhibition, which depends on the kinetics of enzyme inhibition, the presence and rate of titration, and the pharmacodynamic peak-to-trough fluctuations. A model predicting the incidence of nausea based on acetylcholinesterase inhibition and the half-life of acetylcholinesterase recovery is proposed. In conclusion, cholinesterase inhibitors are the only pharmacological agents proved to be effective for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease in large, long term, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials. While the efficacy of different cholinesterase inhibitors is similar, their tolerability profiles differ. For example, the incidence of nausea (in excess of that seen with placebo) at cognitively effective dosages ranges from 1% with eptastigmine 60 mg/day to 53% with physostigmine 30 mg/day. Differences in tolerability profile may be due to the extent of peripheral acetylcholinesterase inhibition needed to reach clinical efficacy. Other contributing pharmacodynamic factors are the rate of onset of and fluctuations in acetylcholinesterase inhibition at steady state.
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PMID:Pharmacodynamic-tolerability relationships of cholinesterase inhibitors for Alzheimer's disease. 1147 43

The general public, the mass media, and many government officials believe that the use of weapons of mass destruction (WMD) will inevitably lead to mass panic and/or mass hysteria. However, studies of disasters and wars show that disorganized flight in the presence of a real or perceived danger (i.e., mass panic) is rare. On the other hand, in a real or perceived WMD scenario, outbreaks of multiple unexplained symptoms (i.e., mass psychogenic illness, mass sociogenic illness, mass hysteria, or epidemic hysteria) may be prevalent. Many of the symptoms (fatigue, nausea, vomiting, headache, dizziness/lightheadedness, and anorexia) are common in combat and after toxic chemical exposure, chemical weapon exposure, prodromal infectious illness, and acute radiation sickness.
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PMID:Collective behaviors: mass panic and outbreaks of multiple unexplained symptoms. 1177 31

Polycythemia vera (PV) and essential thrombocythemia (ET) are chronic disorders for which there are no medical cures. Clinical sequelae of PV and ET fall into three categories: primary, such as thrombosis and hemorrhage; secondary, resulting from disease progression or treatment. The decision whether to treat the patient is based on the sequelae of no treatment versus short- and long-term toxicities of the three classes of drugs available for treatment: hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and anagrelide. Thrombosis is the most common short-term sequelae of untreated disease; the risk increases with age and after the first thrombotic complication. Hydroxyurea, a nonalkylating myelosuppressive agent, is mutagenic and probably leukemogenic over 5 to 15 years, which makes it unsuitable for treating most younger patients. Interferon-alpha, a cytokine that is myelosuppressive and immunomodulatory, has been shown to have a therapeutic effect in both PV and ET. Tolerance to the initial flu-like symptoms of interferon-alpha is usually developed, but dose-limiting symptoms of anorexia, asthenia, and neuropsychiatric disease can occur, along with exacerbation or development of autoimmune diseases. Anagrelide, a quinazoline that inhibits cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase, inhibits platelet aggregation and has an idiosyncratic effect of inhibiting megakaryocyte maturation and platelet budding at doses below those that affect platelet function. This agent is a vasodilator with positive inotropic activity and a side-effect profile that may include palpitations, forceful heartbeat, tachycardia, and headache. One in four patients develop fluid retention and/or edema that are controllable with diuretic therapy. Dizziness is frequent, but mild. Because these side effects usually abate in 2 to 4 weeks, successful management of patients taking anagrelide depends on encouraging them to maintain therapy. The availability of these three classes of drugs with differing modes of action suggests that combination therapy may offer the opportunity to achieve better control of proliferation while reducing short-term side effects as well as the risks of dose-related cumulative sequelae.
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PMID:Other secondary sequelae of treatments for myeloproliferative disorders. 1209 54

A 66-yr-old man presented with presyncopal episodes, dizziness, anorexia, nausea, and weight loss and was noted to have low blood pressure with a postural drop and sparse eyebrows. Laboratory investigations revealed evidence of hypopituitarism. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a non-enhancing mass arising from the adenohypophysis. The neurohypophysis was displaced laterally but appeared otherwise normal. The lesion was thought to be a nonfunctioning pituitary adenoma and a trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy was performed. Histologically, this lesion was a diffuse large B-cell lymphoma that had features of a high grade mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)-type lymphoma arising in association with low-grade B-cell lymphoma of MALT type. There was no clinical or radiological evidence of lymphoma in other sites and there was no evidence of an immunocompromised state. Only one previous case of primary malignant lymphoma of the pituitary has been reported and this patient presented with compression of the optic chiasm. We describe the clinical and pathological features of a patient who presented with hypopituitarism and was found to have a pituitary lymphoma. This is the first reported case of a pituitary lymphoma presenting with pituitary failure and the first case characterized by lymphocyte-marker studies that confirmed it to be a B-cell lymphoma.
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PMID:Primary Lymphoma of Pituitary Gland: A Neoplasm of Acquired Malt? 1211 95


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