Gene/Protein Disease Symptom Drug Enzyme Compound
Pivot Concepts:   Target Concepts:
Query: EC:3.4.24.11 (CD10)
 9,792 document(s) hit in 31,850,051 MEDLINE articles (0.00 seconds)

The marrow microenvironment is a complex, three-dimensional structure composed of many cell types and abundant extracellular matrix. Much of the data are derived from analysis of the adherent layer of murine and, especially, human long-term marrow cultures. An essential feature of this in vitro counterpart to the marrow microenvironment is the presence of flat angulated cells functionally defined as marrow stromal cells with the following phenotype: type IV collagen(+), laminin(+), vimentin(+), CD10(+), muscle actin(+), Stro-1(+), and negative for CD45, Mac-1, and HLA-DR. Stromal precursors are Stro-1(+) and CD34(+). Regulation of hematopoietic precursors by the microenvironment occurs by elaboration of regulatory molecules such as hematopoietic cytokines, by cell-cell contact via adhesion molecules such as alpha 4 beta 1 integrin, and by interactions with components of the extracellular matrix as in the case of the glycosaminoglycan hyaluronic acid with cell-associated CD44. Although little about the regulation of stromal cell development itself is known, several studies indicate the transplantability of marrow stromal cells under specific conditions. These developments suggest a potential role of stromal cells in cell therapy. Transfected stromal cells may serve as suitable vehicles for gene delivery to correct single gene disorders in which the product of the target gene does not require stringent regulation as, for example, in the correction of Factor VIII and Factor IX deficiency. Further studies are warranted to investigate marrow stromal cell physiology and regulation to better understand hematopoiesis and to explore the possible use of stroma in therapy.
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PMID:Biology of bone marrow stroma. 859 83

Immunomorphological characteristics of 27 renal cell carcinomas--18 clear cell, 6 granular, 2 chromophobic, 1 sarcomatoid--as well as 1 oncocytoma were analyzed. The investigation was performed on cryostat sections with indirect immunoperoxidase technique using monoclonal antibodies to intermediate filaments-cytokeratin and vimentin--and renal differentiation antigens--CD10 and CD24. All carcinomas, with the exception of chromophobic type, showed cytokeratin/vimentin coexpression together with strong CD24 and weak (or absent) CD10 staining indicating at primitive cells with initial differentiation toward proximal tubule epithelium as most probable site of origin. In chromophobic cells only cytokeratin and CD24 antigen presence was observed, pattern similar to that seen in oncocytoma. It could be supposed that those two tumors have closely related histogenesis, originating from more differentiated cells with tendency to develop toward distal tubule epithelium.
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PMID:[Histogenesis of renal cell carcinoma]. 864 65

Olfactory neuroepithelial cells (ONC) grown from biopsies of human donors are a novel cell culture system that may facilitate studies into normal and disease-related human neurobiology. We further characterized the expression of cell surface markers and intermediate filaments, and responses to neurotrophic factors by ONC. ONC are positive for cell surface markers N-CAM, PSA-N-CAM, neutral endopeptidase, N-aminopeptidase, NGF low-affinity receptor homologue (CD40), and transferrin receptor by flow cytometry for the intermediate filament proteins peripherin, vimentin, and NF-H by immunocytochemistry. Responses to neurotrophic factors measured were process outgrowth, cytoskeletal protein expression, and protein phosphorylation. Process outgrowth was increased by interleukin-beta 164-171 (IL-1beta) or by the combination of IL-1beta, interleukin-6 (IL-6), nerve growth factor (NGF), and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF). This combination of IL-1beta, IL-6, NGF, and bFGF (16NF) increased expression of two cytoskeletal proteins, NF-H protein and microtubule-associated protein tau. Application of the individual neurotrophic factors IL-1beta, IL-6, NGF, and bFGF increased protein phosphorylation, while 16NF produced an immediate increase in tyrosine phosphorylation of several proteins (MW of 40-80, 120, 150, and 190 kDa). The 16NF combination appears to act through a tyrosine-kinase-mediated pathway to induce process extension and increase NF-H expression. The ONC culture has the potential to be further explored to examine the relationship among process outgrowth, protein phosphorylation, and synergy between neurotrophin and cytokine receptor systems.
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PMID:Human olfactory neuroepithelial cells: tyrosine phosphorylation and process extension are increased by the combination of IL-1beta, IL-6, NGF, and bFGF. 891 9

Mouse monoclonal antibodies raised against nuclear bodies isolated from an EBV-immortalized lymphoblastoid cell line (LCL) known to contain several viral and cellular proteins (Jiang et al., Exp. Cell Res., 197: 314-318, 1991; Szekely et al., J. Gen. Virol., 76: 2423-2432, 1995; Szekely et al., J. Virol., 70: 2562-2568, 1996). Seventy six clones gave detectable immunofluorescence staining on LCLs. Five independent monoclonal antibodies detected a group of apparently novel, high M(r) (> 200,000) proteins that shared common features of subcellular distribution. In LCLs, these proteins were preferentially associated with vimentin filaments in the cytoplasm and with distinct nuclear foci. The appearance of the latter differed from the premyelocytic leukemia-associated protein, EBV nuclear antigen #5, and retinoblastoma-protein-positive bodies that were used for immunization. They seemed to be connected to the cytoplasmic filaments through thin fibrillar nuclear structures. In mitotic cells, these complex structures rearranged into a perichromosomal basket that was associated with vimentin filaments. The target proteins, operationally designated as proteins associated with nuclear dots and cytoplasmic filaments (pNDCFs), were not present in resting human B cells or were expressed at a low level. The level increased considerably after EBV infection or mitogenic stimulation by interleukin 4 and anti-CD40 antibodies. In Burkitt lymphoma (BL) type I lines phenotypically representative of the in vivo tumors, the pNDCFs were either absent or exclusively localized to the nucleus, usually to well-defined nuclear foci. EBV-positive type I BLs often shift to a more LCL-like (type III) phenotype during prolonged in vitro propagation. Type I cells express only EBV nuclear antigen 1 and the surface markers CD10 and CD77, whereas type III express all nine growth-associated EBV-encoded proteins and a gamut of B-cell activation markers. Most of the type III BL cell lines contained increased amounts of pNDCFs bound to cytoplasmic filaments, as seen in the LCLs. We propose that the expression of vimentin-associated pNDCFs should be included in the definition of type III BL phenotype.
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PMID:Differential expression of nucleoskeleton- and cytoskeleton-associated proteins in Burkitt lymphoma-derived and Epstein-Barr virus-immortalized lymphoblastoid cell lines. 914 11

In normal breast, cell-stromal contact is mediated by myoepithelial cells which strongly express alpha2beta1, alpha3beta1, and alpha6beta4 integrins, while epithelial cells exhibit alpha2beta1 and alpha3beta1 integrins at cell-cell borders, but do not express alpha6beta4 integrin. Breast carcinomas consistently show down-regulation of all integrins. We have investigated the modulatory effect of stromal proteins, hormones, and transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta) on integrin expression in breast cancer cell lines MCF-7, T47-D, and MDA-MB 231 using indirect immunofluorescence and confocal laser scanning microscopy. MCF-7 and T47-D cells displayed low levels of both alpha2beta1 and alpha3beta1 integrins, and no alpha6beta4 integrin, and this profile remained unchanged by modulatory agents. The MDA-MB 231 cells exhibited stronger staining for alpha2beta1 and alpha3beta1 integrins and focal staining for alpha6beta4 integrin under control conditions, but markedly enhanced reactivity for the alpha6beta4 complex in the presence of TGF-beta. This was associated with acquisition of a spread cellular morphology and localization of alpha6beta4 at the cell periphery in a discrete punctate distribution. There was associated enhanced expression of epiligrin, the ligand for alpha6beta4, with similar localization to the cell periphery. Cell invasion assays through a Matrigel barrier revealed significantly reduced invasive potential of TGF-beta-treated cells, an effect largely reversed following preincubation of the treated cells with anti-beta4 integrin antibody. We conclude that alpha6beta4 integrin can be up-regulated by TGF-beta and has an anti-invasive effect on MDA-MB 231 cells. In addition to alpha6beta4, MDA-MB 231 cells exhibit other myoepithelial markers including cytokeratin 14, vimentin, and weak expression of CALLA. These findings support the concept of a subgroup of breast carcinomas displaying features of myoepithelial differentiation.
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PMID:Modulation of myoepithelial-associated alpha6beta4 integrin in a breast cancer cell line alters invasive potential. 929 56

The majority of renal neoplasms can be distinguished on the basis of histologic examination alone; however, there are morphologic similarities between clear cell renal carcinoma and chromophobe cell carcinoma, as well as between the granular/eosinophilic variants of these tumors and renal oncocytoma. Only a limited number of histochemical markers are available to aid in the differential diagnosis of these neoplasms. Hale's colloidal iron usually yields strong, diffuse cytoplasmic staining of chromophobe cell carcinomas whereas clear cell carcinomas are generally negative; however, interpretation of this stain is not always straightforward. By immunohistochemistry, vimentin is detectable in most clear cell carcinomas and is absent from most chromophobe cell tumors and oncocytomas, but reliance on a single antibody can be misleading. In this report we examine the use of commercially available monoclonal antibodies to RCC and CD10 in the differential diagnosis of common renal tumors. Eighty-five percent of clear cell carcinomas (53 of 62) had detectable surface membrane staining for RCC, and 94% (58 of 62) were positive for CD10. Papillary carcinomas were likewise strongly positive for RCC and CD10 in nearly all cases (13 of 14 each). In contrast, all 19 chromophobe cell carcinomas examined were completely negative for surface membrane staining with both of these markers. Oncocytomas were also negative for RCC (0 of 9), but CD10 was detectable in some cases (3 of 9). These results suggest that the presence of surface membrane staining for RCC and CD10 may be used to confirm a diagnosis of suspected clear cell or papillary renal carcinoma. Chromophobe cell carcinomas should be negative for both markers. The absence of RCC staining may also be helpful in the diagnosis of renal oncocytoma.
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PMID:Use of antibodies to RCC and CD10 in the differential diagnosis of renal neoplasms. 1068 Aug 88

To clarify the neuroendocrine differentiation and CD10 expression in solid-pseudopapillary tumors (SPTs) of the pancreas, we performed immunohistochemical analysis in 19 such tumors, including one solid-pseudopapillary carcinoma (SPC), along with 20 pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (PNTs), six acinar cell carcinomas (ACCs), and one pancreatoblastoma (PB). We used antisera directed against CD56, synaptophysin, protein gene product 9.5, the alpha-subunit of Go protein, chromogranin A, CD10, trypsin, chymotrypsin, various cytokeratins (CKs), CA19-9, vimentin, and alpha-1-antitrypsin (AAT). All SPTs exhibited immunoreactivity for CD56 and CD10, and 15 expressed other neuroendocrine markers focally with the exception of chromogranin A. Frequent clustering of synaptophysin-positive cells was noted. Two cases contained a peculiar nodule that cytomorphologically and immunohistochemically resembled PNT. CD10-positive cells were scarce in one SPC. PNTs were CD56-positive, but often with faint intensity, and staining for other neuroendocrine markers, including chromogranin A, was diffusely positive. CD10 was detected, mostly in a focal pattern, in five PNTs. Pan-CK, CK8, CK18, and CK19 were more frequently demonstrated in PNT than SPT. Vimentin and AAT were often identified in PNT as well and were not specific for SPT. ACCs were CD56-negative, with the exception of one case designated as a mixed acinar-endocrine carcinoma. PB was focally positive for CD56 at the periphery of the tumor nests. Four ACCs and one PB exhibited focal CD10 reactivity. This study demonstrated the unique immunohistochemical features of SPT. Our results also suggest that SPT exhibits, at least focally, neuroendocrine differentiation, and that these neuroendocrine markers and CD10 are diagnostically useful.
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PMID:Solid-pseudopapillary tumor of the pancreas: immunohistochemical localization of neuroendocrine markers and CD10. 1102 97

Ancillary techniques such as immunohistochemistry (IHC) enable the surgical pathologist to extract additional information from fixed, deparaffinized tissue specimens and to provide data critical to optimal clinical management of the patient. In this review of applications of IHC to the analysis of gynecologic malignancies, the usefulness of immunohistochemical analysis of neoplasms of the cervix, endometrium, and ovary is summarized. In the uterine cervix, dysplasia is associated with qualitative and quantitative alterations in the expression of the Ki-67 antigen expression, as well as an ability to detect human papillomavirus. Endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinomas display a highly characteristic immunophenotype, with coexpression of cytokeratin and vimentin and demonstration of foci of high molecular weight cytokeratin expression; in addition, IHC analysis of estrogen and progesterone receptor and p53 expression can provide important prognostic information about this tumor. Stromal tumors of the endometrium may display a partial smooth muscle immunophenotype, but novel markers such as CD10 provide new tools for the identification of these tumors. The immunophenotypes of the normal ovarian surface epithelium (OSE) and corresponding tumors display significant overlap with, but important distinctions from, mesothelium, and important new markers such as the Wilms tumor gene product can prove useful in the identification of carcinomas of the OSE. Important prognostic markers for carcinomas of the OSE include the HER-2/neu gene product and p53, alterations of which can both be assessed by IHC techniques. Finally, the recent availability of markers of ovarian stroma, including Melan-A and inhibin-alpha, has provided a means for the positive identification of ovarian stromal tumors, which can manifest protean histological appearances.
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PMID:Immunohistochemical analysis of gynecologic tumors. 1119 73

Three soft tissue tumors from 2 female hedgehogs were examined microscopically and immunohistochemically. Two tumors involved haired skin and the third one was vaginal. Microscopically, the cutaneous tumors had features of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (MPNST), whereas the vaginal tumor was classified only as a spindle cell sarcoma. Immunohistochemically, all 3 tumors were strongly positive for vimentin and strongly to moderately positive for CD10 and neuron-specific enolase but did not stain with antibody to S100 protein, an antigen typically present in human MPNST The cutaneous tumor from hedgehog no. 1 was examined ultrastructurally and the neoplastic cells resembled fibroblasts. Hedgehog no. 1 was euthanized at the time of the biopsy. The outcome of the other hedgehog was unknown.
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PMID:Soft tissue sarcomas in the African hedgehog (Atelerix albiventris): microscopic and immunohistologic study of three cases. 1158 72

We encountered a child with an intraosseous small round cell tumor that was negative for LCA, CD20 (L26), and CD3 and positive for vimentin, CD99 (MIC-2), and periodic acid-Schiff. The tumor exhibited rosette-like formations. This case was initially interpreted as Ewing's sarcoma (ES); however, additional studies revealed positivity for CD79a, CD43, and TdT expression, and an immunoglobulin heavy chain gene rearrangement (IgH-R) by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) established this to be a precursor B-lymphoblastic lymphoma. Because the differential diagnosis of ES and lymphoblastic lymphoma can be difficult and the differential diagnostic value of leukocyte antigens and immunoglobulin heavy chain gene rearrangement studies have not been fully evaluated, we conducted a more extensive investigation on 33 (21 soft tissue and 12 intraosseous) ES cases. Cases were retrieved from the files of the Department of Pathology at Georgetown University and from the Soft Tissue Registry of the Armed Forces Institute of Pathology. The cases were studied by light microscopy, immunohistochemistry, and PCR for IgH-R and T cell receptor gamma chain gene rearrangement (Tgamma-R). There were 17 females and 16 males; the mean age was 29.3 years. Locations included the extremities (n = 17) and trunk (n = 16). All cases fit the ES spectrum by light microscopy and immunohistochemistry, as previously determined, and were negative for lymphoid markers (LCA, CD3, CD20, CD43, CD79a, and TdT), CD10 and CD34. CD99 was positive in 31/33 and bcl-2 was weakly positive in 13/33 cases. All 21 cases studied for gene rearrangements by PCR were negative for IgH-R and Tgamma-R. Distinction of intraosseous lymphoblastic lymphoma from ES may be difficult because lymphomas may occasionally exhibit unexpected morphologic and immunophenotypic properties including LCA, CD3 and CD20 negativity and cytokeratin positivity. Additional analysis using CD79a, CD43, TdT, and PCR should be performed to avoid misdiagnosis. True ES is negative for lymphoid markers including CD79a, CD43, and TdT, as well as for IgH-R and Tgamma-R.
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PMID:Differentiating lymphoblastic lymphoma and Ewing's sarcoma: lymphocyte markers and gene rearrangement. 1170 81


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